2013年10月31日星期四

HP0-M19 dernières questions d'examen certification HP et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: HP0-M19
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Virtual User Generator Software)
Questions et réponses: 59 Q&As

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NO.1 You want to have each step in your script measured as a transaction in the Controller and not
shown in the Replay Log in VuGen. How can you accomplish this?
A.enable the automatic transaction in the Run-time settings
B.manually add transactions to each step from the Tree view
C.add a transaction to each page, using the transactions sub-task
D.select the option from the Tools menu to add transaction to each step in the Script view
Correct:A

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NO.2 You want to apply Script A Run-time settings, parameters, extra files, and actions to Script B.
How can this be accomplished?
A.save Script A script as a template, then apply the template to Script B
B.export Script A settings to a .cor file, then import the settings to Script B
C.select the option to create a new Vuser script from, then, select Script A
D.copy the .ext file located in Script A main directory to Script B main directory
Correct:A

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NO.3 You have created several new Auto Correlation rules. A new tester on your team is preparing to
record a group of scripts on the same application on his workstation. What can you do to provide
the tester with the correlation rules?
A.You do not need to do anything. Auto Correlation rules are global and are available to all testers using
the same Controller machine.
B.Under the File menu, you select Zip Operations, then export to a zip file. You have the new tester import
the file into his script.
C.The Auto Correlation rules are saved in the script main folder. You create a share so the other tester
has access to the script main folder.
D.You export the Auto Correlation rules to a .cor file, and then have the new team member import the .cor
file into his Auto Correlation rules.
Correct:D

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NO.4 You want to have your script define a different e-mail address to each user during a registration
process for an e-commerce site, using the following format: testing99999@hp.com. Your script
will execute a maximum of 50 iterations. How can this be accomplished?
A.define a file parameter, start at 1, block size per Vuser: 50, number format: testing%05d@hp.com
B.define a unique number parameter, start at 1, block size per Vuser: 50, number format:
testing%05d@hp.com
C.define a random number parameter, minimum number: 1, maximum number: 99999, number format:
testing%05d@hp.com
D.define a sequential number parameter, minimum number: 1, maximum number 999, number format:
testing%05d@hp.com
Correct:B

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NO.5 You want to emulate a call center for an airline. All representatives login in the morning, perform
their business processes, and log out at night. In one day, a representative will Create 40 flight
reservations, Modify 10 flight reservations, and Search for 20 flight reservations. A representative
cannot perform a Modify without performing a Search first. Which run logic would satisfy the load
testing goal?
A.Create - 67% Search - 16% Block0 - 17% Search Modify
B.Create - 57% Search - 29% Block0 - 14% Search Modify
C.Create - 57% Search - 29% Modify - 14%
D.Create - 67% Search - 16% Modify - 17%
Correct:A

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NO.6 What is the recommended Logging Run-time setting when playing back a script prior to manual
correlation?
A.Standard
B.Disable Logging
C.Extended -> Parameter Substitution
D.Extended -> Data Returned by Server
Correct:D

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NO.7 Where do you define an Auto Correlation rule?
A.Test settings
B.General options
C.Run-time settings
D.Recording options
Correct:D

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NO.8 Which section in a VuGen script is executed only one time, during Vuser initialization?
A.login
B.action
C.vuser_init
D.vuser_end
Correct:C

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NO.9 For debugging purposes, you would like to show a browser during replay. Where do you enable
this option?
A.General options
B.Playback options
C.Run-time settings
D.Recording options
Correct:A

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NO.10 What is used, during the debugging process that will pause execution at a specific point in the
script?
A.Step button
B.Compile button
C.Execution Arrow button
D.Toggle Breakpoint button
Correct:D

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HP0-M14 dernières questions d'examen certification HP et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: HP0-M14
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Project and Portolio Management 7.1 Software)
Questions et réponses: 69 Q&As

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NO.1 Which time sheet statuses are displayed in the TMG-My Time Sheets portlet? Select four.
A. cancel
B. closed
C. approved
D. frozen
E. unsubmitted
Answer: BCDE

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NO.2 What are the main configuration entities that make up a request process implementation? Select three.
A. request workflow
B. request template
C. request header type
D. request form
E. request type
Answer:ACE

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NO.3 What are the different security layers that you can enforce in a request process? Select three.
A. license
B. field-level restrictions
C. participant permissions
D. access grant security group
E. workflow step permissions
Answer: BCE

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NO.4 Which element of a table rule defines the logic for applying the automated entries in the results
column?
A. dependencies
B. results
C. PL/SQL D. SQL
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which standard portlets are available on a preconfigured portfolio management page? Select two.
A. asset list
B. current portfolio
C. project list
D. portfolio by business objective
Answer: BD

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NO.6 Which field attributes can be conditionally set using status dependency rules? Select four.
A. visible
B. editable
C. required
D. confirm
E. reconfirm
Answer: ABCE

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NO.7 Which of the field entries that can be automated by a simple default rule is mandatory?
A. Workflow
B. Assigned To C. Assigned Group
D. None of the field entries are mandatory
Answer:A

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NO.8 The below exhibit of request type intitled3 displays a set of fields in its fields tab. Where were these
fields acquired?
A. fields were added by selecting New at the bottom of the screen
B. fields were inherited from the default Request Header
C. fields were added by selecting the Field Group option
D. fields were added and inherited in Sub-Types tab
Answer: B

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NO.9 If a project manager wished to provide a set of dashboard pages to the project team whereby none of
the team members could change the data or modify any of the pages, which option would be best?
A. self-service module
B. shared module
C. personalize dashboard
D. publish dashboard
Answer: B

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NO.10 What basic information is required to define a field? Select three.
A. token
B. validation
C. attributes
D. storage
E. field prompt
Answer:ABE

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Code d'Examen: HP0-A03
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP-UX 11 to 11i v3 Differences)
Questions et réponses: 197 Q&As

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NO.1 Which LVM command allows dynamic size expansion of LUNs?
A. vgmove
B. vgmodify
C. vgextend
D. vgchange
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which vPar feature is new on HP-UX 11i v3?
A. shared I/O
B. CPU granularity
C. dynamic migration of I/O
D. dynamic migration of memory
Answer: D

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NO.3 You are planning to use 200 VGs in your system. What needs to be done to create the VGs on HP-UX
11i v3?
A. Create the VGs as needed.
B. Change the maxvgs kernel parameter.
C. Change the maxvgs kernel parameter, compile the kernel and reboot.
D. Create the group file using the major number 64 and minor number 0x200000.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which features are enabled by the HP-UX WBEM (Web-Based Enterprise Management) provider
instrumentation? (Select three.)
A. HP-UX Software Assistant capabilities
B. HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) inventory reports
C. HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) user configuration
D. Management processor display of health of the server it is managing
E. HP Systems Management Homepage (SMH) display of component health
F. HP SIM and SMH display of system health and properties G. HP System Management Homepage
(SMH) configuration snapshots and inventory reports
Answer: BEF

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NO.5 Which feature is new to 11i v3 and is only available on Integrity servers?
A. NUMA
B. ccNUMA
C. concurrent dumps
D. single CPU per socket
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which new features of HP-UX 11i v3 potentially increase the overall I/O performance compared to
previous releases of HP-UX 11i? (Select two.)
A. Native Multi-Pathing
B. sx2000 chipset support
C. Agile device addressing
D. Unified File Cache (UFC)
E. Persistent Device Special Files
Answer: AD

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NO.7 What are the key benefits of the 11i v3 Mass Storage Stack? (Select four.)
A. improved security capabilities
B. dramatic I/O performance improvements
C. simplified management and automatic configuration
D. increased scalability (connect up to 16 million devices)
E. choice of load balancing algorithms for native multi-pathing
F. out-of-the-box support for third party active/passive storage arrays
Answer: BCDE

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NO.8 Which HP-UX 11i v3 command allows SCSI device management and diagnoses?
A. ioinit
B. iofind
C. scsiutil
D. scsimgr
Answer: D

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NO.9 What are the benefits of the Serviceguard Storage Management Suite on HP-UX 11i v3? (Select
three.)
A. enables Oracle ASM to run within a file system
B. maintains service levels through the integration with VSE
C. offers tighter integration of Veritas Cluster Server on HP-UX
D. allows for heterogeneous platform support with a single solution
E. enables Oracle RAC customers to get the manageability of a file system
F. provides a single storage management solution to manage all applications
Answer: BEF

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NO.10 You have expanded an existing LUN in your EVA storage. The LUN belongs to an HP-UX 11i v3 LVM
volume group (VG). You want to expand the volume group to reflect the new LUN size. What is the most
efficient way to accomplish this?
A. You cannot expand a physical volume when using LVM.
B. Create another physical volume and extend your current VG.
C. Backup, remove, create and restore the data to reflect the new size.
D. Use the vgmodify command to change the physical volume attributes.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which Serviceguard Storage Management Suite feature allows you to set policies that segment
company data based on various characteristics?
A. Flashsnap
B. Storage Mapping
C. Storage Checkpoints
D. Dynamic Multi-Pathing
E. Dynamic Storage Tiers
Answer: E

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NO.12 A customer wants to migrate to HP-UX 11i v3. The customer has several HP 9000 and Integrity
systems to test on. Which options or systems will support HP-UX 11i v3? (Select two.)
A. L3000 currently running HP-UX 11i v2
B. BL60p currently running HP-UX 11i v2
C. rp3410 currently running HP-UX 11i v2
D. vPar (version A.03.x) on HP 9000 Superdome running HP-UX 11i v1
Answer: BC

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NO.13 You want to create a mirror of a logical volume using two controllers. Which configuration file is used
to accomplish this?
A. /etc/lvmrc
B. /etc/lvmtab
C. /etc/lvmpvg
D. /etc/dualcontroller
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which volume manager is integrated with the Serviceguard Cluster File System (CFS) for HP-UX?
A. Mirrordisk/UX
B. Veritas Volume Replicator
C. TruCluster Volume Manager
D. Veritas Volume Manager/Cluster Volume Manager
E. Logical Volume Manager/Shared Logical Volume Manager
Answer: D

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NO.15 Identify the characteristics of the Memory File System (MemFS). (Select two.)
A. based on the HFS filesystem
B. based on the VxFS filesystem
C. supports files and filesystems as large as 2 TB
D. swaps data to swap space when the system is under memory pressure
E. data in MemFS filesystem remains persistent after unmounts and reboots
Answer: AD

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NO.16 Which benefits do Concurrent Crash Dumps provide to Integrity servers running HP-UX 11i v3? (Select
three.)
A. faster crash dump
B. parallel dump units
C. vertical dump units
D. slower crash dump
E. multiple processors
F. no rebooting required
Answer: ABE

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NO.17 Which benefit does the Cluster File System (CFS) feature of the Serviceguard Storage Management
Suite provide?
A. application failover from the active to standby server
B. file system failover from the active to standby server
C. load balancing across multiple paths from server to disk
D. multiple servers can concurrently read/write to the same file system
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which options are available on an rx6600 running HP-UX 11i v2 with a PCI-e backplane and P400
PCI-e RAID controller? (Select two.)
A. RAID 1 only
B. RAID 1, RAID 5, RAID ADG
C. RAID 1, RAID 5, RAID 1+0
D. configuration of RAID sets via the scsimgr command
E. configuration of RAID sets via the Array Configuration Utility (ACU)
Answer: BE

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NO.19 What does the Oracle Disk Manager provide?
A. data migration from HP9000 to HP Integrity
B. online volume expansion for additional storage space
C. near raw performance for managing your file system data
D. a graphical user interface to monitor, administer and configure the database
Answer: C

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NO.20 What are the major advantages of the new Mass Storage Stack of HP-UX 11i v3 compared to
previous HP-UX versions? (Select two.)
A. transparent I/O path switch in failure cases
B. Locked Device Special Files to physical hardware path or LUN
C. Agile device files based on LUN world wide ID (WWID) addressing
D. significantly larger number of devices can be connected to a single system
E. moving devices to a different FC switch port requires manual intervention during LVM configuration
Answer: CD

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Code d'Examen: HP0-085
Nom d'Examen: HP (Planning and Desiging HP Superdome Server Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 201 Q&As

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NO.1 In an sx2000 HP Superdome Server, what is the minimum number of DIMMs you need to install
to provide high availability in the memory subsystem?
A.two per cell
B.four per cell
C.eight per cell
D.sixteen per cell
Correct:C

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NO.2 The best performance is achieved when partitions have how many cells? (Select two.)
A.two
B.three
C.four
D.five
E.six
Correct:A C

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NO.3 How many HP Superdome servers can you manage with one Support Management Station
(SMS)?
A.8
B.16
C.24
D.32
Correct:B

HP   HP0-085   HP0-085   HP0-085

NO.4 How does Pellston technology contribute to reliability and high availability of Montecito
processors?
A.It increases the bandwidth of the processor bus.
B.It removes hard cache errors by disabling the affected Level 3 (L3) cache line.
C.It measures processor power consumption and deactivates processors with irregular usage.
D.It measures processor power consumption and increases processor frequency for processors that
serve particular applications.
Correct:B

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NO.5 Which layered applications are included in the Enterprise Operating Environment? (Select two.)
A.Online JFS
B.Mirrordisk/UX
C.Data Protector
D.Workload Manager (WLM)
E.Enterprise Cluster Toolkit
Correct:A B

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NO.6 What information does a Guardian Service Processor (GSP) or Management Processor (MP)
provide about an HP Superdome server? (Select two.)
A.event logs
B.console logs
C.server power usage
D.processor utilization percentages
E.service level objectives (SLOs) for each partition
Correct:A B

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NO.7 Which component of Superdome 32-way server is omitted from the Superdome16-way server's
backplane assembly?
A.crossbar links
B.local crossbar communication links
C.cell board connectors for cells 4 through 7
D.cell board connectors for cells 0 through 3
Correct:C

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NO.8 Which statements are true? (Select two.)
A.Processors of different speeds can be mixed in the same cell.
B.Superdome servers support mixing chipsets if they are in different cells.
C.An HP Superdome server can support only one type of chipset at a time.
D.Intel Itanium 2 and mx2 processors can be mixed in the same Superdome server.
E.Processors on the same cell board can be running different firmware versions if they are in separate
hard partitions (nPars).
Correct:C D

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NO.9 Which rule governs how you should load I/O cards in the IOX cabinet?
A.Fill the I/O chassis completely before installing I/O cards in the IOX cabinet.
B.After you have filled a spare I/O chassis, install redundant I/O devices in the IOX cabinet.
C.For high-availability installations, redundant I/O cards should be installed in the IOX cabinet.
D.Distribute I/O cards evenly between the I/O chassis and the IOX cabinet to maximize bandwidth.
Correct:A

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NO.10 How should memory be loaded on an sx2000-based Superdome server to obtain best
performance?
A.Use double data rate (DDR) DIMMs.
B.Populate one full quadrant at a time.
C.Populate the same echelons on each of the four quadrants.
D.Populate the A echelons on each of the cells, then populate the B echelons.
Correct:C

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NO.11 Which business values does HP Workload Manager (WLM) provide by allowing customers to
set service level objectives (SLOs)? (Select two.)
A.increase performance
B.efficient resource utilization
C.activate spare processor capacity
D.run multiple workloads on one system
E.maximum system uptime and availability
Correct:B D

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NO.12 Which HP Superdome servers support the PCI-X I/O chassis? (Select two.)
A.PA-8700
B.PA-8800
C.PA-9000
D.Itanium 2
E.PA-8600
Correct:B D

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NO.13 How can you set how much memory in an HP Superdome is cell local memory, and how much is
interleaved memory? (Select two.)
A.nPar commands
B.HP OpenView Operations
C.HP Partition Manager (parmgr)
D.HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)
E.These values are configured at the factory and cannot be changed without changing cell boards.
Correct:A C

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NO.14 What are the single points of failure in an sx1000 Superdome server? (Select two.)
A.I/O chassis
B.sx2000 chipset
C.crossbar backplane
D.power monitor module
E.Management Processor (MP)
Correct:C D

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NO.15 Which resources are required for an nPar I/O chassis in an sx2000 Superdome server? (Select
two.)
A.Tape drive
B.Core I/O card
C.Instant Capacity (iCAP) cell
D.Card connected to boot media
E.Card connected to removable media
Correct:D E

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NO.16 How does Global Shared Memory increase the performance of an sx2000 Superdome server?
A.provides a redundant global clock source
B.provides console functionality for each cell in a Superdome server
C.provides direct remote access to the cell through the Management Processor (MP)
D.shifts networking between partitions to the backplane instead of through I/O subsystems
Correct:D

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NO.17 Which configuration rule is true for an HP Integrity Superdome cell board memory?
A.DIMMS must all be the same size.
B.Memory must be added all at one time.
C.Individual DIMMS must be loaded in pairs.
D.Mixing DIMM size is allowed with some restrictions.
Correct:D

HP   HP0-085   HP0-085   HP0-085

NO.18 Which memory configuration does HP recommend for an sx1000 Superdome customer who
wants the most availability?
A.16 DIMMS (eight ranks)
B.32 DIMMS (sixteen ranks)
C.minimum of 4 DIMMS (two ranks)
D.minimum of 8 DIMMS (four ranks)
Correct:C

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NO.19 Which devices does HP recommend for each hard partition? (Select two.)
A.DAT
B.DLT
C.LTO
D.DVD
E.CD-ROM
Correct:A D

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NO.20 Which functions does the Support Management Station (SMS) support? (Select two.)
A.activates Instant Capacity (iCAP)
B.displays a log of events for troubleshooting
C.is a console to monitor Superdome servers
D.sets service level objectives (SLOs) for partitions
E.monitors resource usage and allocate resources for partitions
Correct:B C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y21
Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Core Competencies)
Questions et réponses: 79 Q&As

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NO.1 You configured untagged port members of VLAN 10 and VLAN 20 on a ProCurve Switch 8212zl.
Additionally, you assigned IP addresses to interfaces in both VLANs. While testing the configuration, you
discover that nodes in the two VLANs cannot ping each other. The nodes are configured correctly and
connected to the correct ports.
What must be done on the 8212zl to enable communication between the nodes?
A. Disable ICMP blocking.
B. Enable IP routing.
C. Add connected ports to both VLANs.
D. Define a default gateway.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You must specify network management parameters for ProCurve switches scheduled to be installed
at a customer site. Which two features are offered by SNMPv3, but are not offered by SNMPv1 or
SNMPv2c? (Select two.)
A. configurable trap receiver ports
B. TCP-based message flow control
C. access control based on IP address or DNS name
D. encrypted communications
E. access restrictions based on user identity
Answer: DE

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NO.3 What is the default username and password for the ProCurve Manager Management Server?
A. username: Manager
password: password
B. username: Administrator
password: admin
C. username: Manager
password: value configured during installation
D. username: Administrator
password: value configured during installation
E. username: value configured during installation
password: value configured during installation
Answer: D

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NO.4 You must configure password protection for read/write access to the CLI of a ProCurve switch. Which
command is necessary to complete this task?
A. ProCurve Switch 5304XL(config)# password operator
B. ProCurve Switch 5304XL(config)# password manager
C. ProCurve Switch 5304XL(config)# password administrator
D. ProCurve Switch 5304XL(config)# password port-access
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which statement is correct about the support for LLDP offered by ProCurve switches?
A. The LLDP neighbors table contains the system names and MAC addresses of neighbors.
B. LLDP is a reciprocal protocol that provides acknowledgement for each packet transmitted.
C. LLDP is globally disabled by default to avoid any performance impact.
D. When routing is enabled, LLDP is automatically disabled because LLDP messages cannot be
transmitted over routed interfaces.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
Which command enables the ProCurve Switch 3500yl-24G to execute the config2 configuration file
shown in the exhibit?
A. erase config1
B. copy config2 flash primary
C. config active config2
D. boot system flash secondary
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which features are available in ProCurve Manager Plus, but not in ProCurve Manager? (Select two.)
A. alerts notification
B. automatic discovery
C. network topology mapping
D. scheduled software updates
E. CLI device management
F. traffic analysis
Answer: DF

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NO.8 You must enable IP routing at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 3500yl, but can remember only that the
command begins with "ip." Which command provides context-sensitive help?
A. 3500yl# ip[ENTER]
B. 3500yl# ip/?[ENTER]
C. 3500yl# help ip[ENTER]
D. 3500yl# ip?[ENTER]
E. 3500yl# ip[TAB]
Answer: E

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NO.9 Which methods are used by ProCurve Manager Plus to discover manageable devices? (Select three.)
A. scans TCP ports
B. pings to detect replies
C. scans for ProCurve SNMP identifiers
D. reads ARP table
E. tests for Telnet access
F. listens for LLDP messages
Answer: BDF

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NO.10 Which VLAN configuration parameters must be reviewed when a network user group relocates to an
office facility with a new network setup? (Select two.)
A. VLAN membership for other workstations in the group's new facility
B. VLAN membership for the switch ports that will provide connectivity for the group's workstations
C. IP addressing for the default VLAN on the switch that will provide connectivity for the group's
workstations
D. VLAN membership for the uplink port on the switch that will provide connectivity between the group
and resources connected to other switches
E. VLAN membership of the default gateway on the switch that will provide connectivity for the group's
workstations
Answer: BD

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NO.11 Which ProCurve Manager wizard simplifies the task of changing the SNTP server IP address
parameter on 50 ProCurve 5406zl switches?
A. CLI Wizard
B. Switch Update Wizard
C. Configuration Wizard
D. IP Networking Wizard
E. Network Services Wizard
Answer: A

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NO.12 You must configure a ProCurve switch to help protect a customer network from malicious users who
might attempt to exhaust the address pool of the company's DHCP server. Which ProCurve feature will
help to address this vulnerability?
A. DHCP snooping
B. Dynamic ARP protection
C. built-in DHCP server
D. DHCP relay
Answer: A

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NO.13 while installing ProCurve Manager Server, you specify 192.168.1.1 as the "Start from device." This
device is a ProCurve Switch 5406zl with IP routing and RIP enabled. The switch has interfaces in four IP
networks, including 192.168.1.0/24.
Which ProCurve devices will be automatically discovered by ProCurve Manager?
A. devices in the 5406zl LLDP neighbor table
B. devices in the 192.168.1.0/24 network
C. devices in all networks in the 5406zl route table
D. devices in all networks directly connected to the 5406zl
Answer: B

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NO.14 At a customer site, a network technician notices that a device deleted from the Navigation Pane in
ProCurve Manager Plus (PCM+) reappears after two days. How can the technician prevent this behavior?
A. Disable LLDP on the device.
B. Delete the device's subnet from the Managed Subnets list.
C. Configure PCM+ discovery options to ignore the device's VLAN.
D. Add the device to the Excluded Devices list.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which configuration and monitoring interfaces are available when you access a ProCurve switch
through Telnet? (Select two.)
A. menu interface
B. ProCurve Manager
C. command line interface
D. boot monitor interface
E. web interface
Answer: AC

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NO.16 A ProCurve Switch 8212zl must be configured to be the ABR for OSPF areas 0 and 5. While
implementing this configuration, you enter the following command at the switch's CLI:
8212.l(ospf)#area 5 stub 2 no-summary
How will this affect the route tables of other routers in area 5?
A. Only directly connected routes will be listed.
B. Every route known to the 8212zl will be listed with a separate gateway and cost.
C. The only OSPF route will be the interface with the 8212zl.
D. All networks outside area 5 will be summarized as a default route.
Answer: D

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NO.17 while installing ProCurve Manager Server, you specify 192.168.1.1 as the "Start from device." This
device is a ProCurve Switch 5406zl with IP routing and RIP enabled. The switch has interfaces in four IP
networks, including 192.168.1.0/24.
Which step must be taken to enable ProCurve Manager to discover devices in networks other than
192.168.1.0/24?
A. Perform a Manual Discovery for each VLAN configured on the 5406zl.
B. Import the subnet address ranges from the 5406zl routing table.
C. Configure ProCurve Manager to receive SNMP traps from devices in the networks.
D. Add the other networks to the Managed Subnets list in Discovery Preferences.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which ports configured on a ProCurve switch are equivalent to the access ports on a Cisco Systems
switch?
A. edge ports
B. LAG ports
C. untagged ports
D. tagged ports
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which methods can be used to update the ProCurve Switch 5412zl software using the CLI? (Select
two.)
A. FTP over IP connection
B. TFTP over serial port connection
C. direct serial port transfer
D. TFTP over IP connection
E. SNMPv3 transfer over IP connection
Answer: CD

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NO.20 What is the effect of the following command issued at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 5406zl?
ProCurve Switch 5406zl# configure terminal
A. The CLI moves to the global configuration context.
B. The CLI echoes user input to the terminal.
C. The CLI displays current configuration parameters.
D. The CLI provides an interface for configuring terminal variables such as line length.
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which statement is correct about the discovery features of ProCurve Manager (PCM) with ProCurve
Manager Plus (PCM+)?
A. PCM+ enables the scheduling of auto-discovery; PCM requires users to initiate discovery manually.
B. PCM+ and PCM use identical discovery processes.
C. PCM+ supports discovery based on LLDP, CDP and FDP; PCM supports discovery based only on
CDP and FDP.
D. PCM+ will discover devices from manufacturers other than HP; PCM will only discover ProCurve
devices.
Answer: B

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NO.22 You must define a hostname on a ProCurve Switch 5406zl. Which configuration context must you enter
to perform this task?
A. manager
B. interface configuration
C. operator
D. global configuration
Answer: D

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NO.23 In ProCurve Manager Plus, which user type can configure and manage network devices but cannot
add, delete, or modify user accounts?
A. operator
B. viewer
C. manager
D. administrator
Answer: A

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NO.24 What is the effect of entering the following command at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 5406zl?
5406zl(vlan-100)#interface a1
A. Port A1 is enabled.
B. The CLI enters the configuration context for port A1.
C. Port A1 becomes a tagged member of VLAN 100.
D. The CLI displays the status of port A1.
Answer: B

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NO.25 Port a1 on a ProCurve Switch 5406zl is a tagged member of VLAN 20. Which devices can
communicate through this port? (Select two.)
A. a port on another switch that is a tagged member of VLAN 20
B. a port on another switch that is an untagged member of VLAN 20
C. an end station that cannot insert or remove 802.1Q tags
D. a port on another switch that cannot insert or remove 802.1Q tags
E. an 802.1Q-compliant end station that is a member of VLAN 20
Answer: AE

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NO.26 Which authentication methods are supported by the SSH service on ProCurve switches? (Select
three.)
A. MAC-Auth
B. 802.1X
C. Kerberos
D. local user name and password
E. public key
F. RADIUS
Answer: DEF

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NO.27 Which privilege level is indicated by this prompt in the CLI of a ProCurve switch?
Switch_1A#
A. manager
B. operator
C. global configuration
D. viewer
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which steps are necessary before enabling SSL on a ProCurve switch? (Select two.)
A. Generate an HTTPS client certificate.
B. Import a certificate from a Certificate Authority.
C. Generate a self-signed server certificate.
D. Disable unencrypted Web-based management.
E. Generate public and private keys.
Answer: CE

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NO.29 Which command, entered at the CLI of a ProCurve switch, saves the switch's running configuration to
its startup configuration?
A. write config
B. save startup-config
C. write memory
D. save running-config
E. copy running-config startup-config
Answer: C

HP   HP0-Y21   HP0-Y21   HP0-Y21

NO.30 What is the effect of issuing the following command at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 5406zl?
ProCurve Switch 5400zl(config)# include-credentials
A. Management passwords and user names will be displayed in the running configuration.
B. Local management user names and passwords will be stored on the configured RADIUS server.
C. The switch will send and require authentication information for all SNMP communications.
D. User names and passwords will be required for all management access.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J15
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP StorageWorks MASE 2088 Delta Exam)
Questions et réponses: 160 Q&As

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NO.1 Which SAN services are provided by the HP StorageWorks 400 Multi-Protocol Router (MPR)? (Select
two.)
A:ISL zoning
B:FCIP tunneling
C:IP-IP subnet routing
D:iSCSI-FC translation
E:FC-FC subnet routing
Correct Answers: B, E

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NO.2 You are merging two fabrics and receive a fabric segmentation error that indicates the definition of a
zone object in one fabric is different from its definition in the other fabric. What can cause this error?
A: duplicate IDs
B: zone type mismatch
C: zone content mismatch
D: zone configuration mismatch
Correct Answers: C

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NO.3 Where do you find the essential security elements in B-Series Fibre Channel switches running
firmware v5.3.x?
A: base Fabric OS
B: Secure Fabric OS
C: ISL Trunking manager
D: switch port web interface
Correct Answers: A

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NO.4 Brocade Secure Fabric OS is running on a fabric with four switches. If you are logged in to one of the
switches and change the Admin password, which switch or switches will have the password changed?
A: all the switches
B: LDAP-enabled switches only
C: only the switch you are logged in to
D: only switches connected to the Ethernet
Correct Answers: A

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NO.5 In B-Series virtual fabrics, which feature allows you to access devices in another virtual fabric?
A: Inter-VSAN Routing
B: Inter-Fabric Routing
C: Cross-VSAN Routing
D: Cross-Fabric Routing
Correct Answers: B

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NO.6 What are benefits of logical fabrics? (Select three.)
A:port count reduction
B:easier administration
C:fabric service isolation
D:increased performance
E:fault propagation minimization
F:device sharing across logical fabrics
Correct Answers: C, E, F

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NO.7 Under ideal operating conditions, what is the maximum supported, long-wave transceiver distance with
B or C-Series Switches and 4Gb SFPs?
A: 4km
B: 10km
C: 35km
D: 100km
Correct Answers: B

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NO.8 How many drives can be held by the M6412 drive shelf?
A: 8
B: 12
C: 14
D: 16
Correct Answers: B

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NO.9 A customer is expanding a SAN to 400 switch ports, but has limited rack space. Which single Director
switch model is recommended?
A: Cisco MDS 9509 Director
B: Cisco MDS 9513 Director
C: HP StorageWorks 4/500 SAN Director
D: HP StorageWorks 4/256 SAN Director
Correct Answers: B

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NO.10 A customer wants to replicate data between two sites 200 km apart. Which HP SAN product would you
recommend?
A: MPX 100
B: MPX 110
C: MPR 100
D: MPR 110
Correct Answers: B

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NO.11 Which application can be used to set up network shares and provision iSCSI storage?
A: Brocade Fabric Manager
B: HP Data Protector Express
C: HP CommandView EVA 7.0
D: HP All-in-One Storage Manager
Correct Answers: D

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NO.12 Which SAN switch management tool, previously only available as an embedded version, is now
separately available on CD?
A: Emulex EZpilot
B: McData HAFM
C: Cisco Fabric Manager
D: Brocade Fabric Watch
Correct Answers: C

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NO.13 How can you improve iSCSI host performance in a SAN?
A: Upgrade to CommandView 7.
B: Use NICs with TOE (TCP/IP Offload Engine).
C: Enable NPIV (N_Port ID Virtualization) support.
D: Disable SLP (Service Location Protocol) Service Agent.
Correct Answers: B

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NO.14 John, your customer, has a SAN built on B-Series switches. He calls you because he heard about a
new feature which allows him to distribute administrator responsibilities among his staff. After research,
what is your recommendation to John?
A: Upgrade to Secure Fabric OS version 5.2.
B: Purchase the Advanced Administration license.
C: Implement Distributed Administration through Fabric Manager.
D: Implement Admin Domains available since Fabric OS version 5.2.
Correct Answers: D

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NO.15 A customer decides on HP c-Class BladeSystem as a corporate standard for servers. You must
implement SAN integration of the blades into a very large fabric. The customer is concerned about the
maximum switch count. Which interconnects will you recommend? (Select two.)
A:QLogic 4Gb Fabric Switch
B:Cisco MDS 9124e Fabric Switch
C:Emulex 4Gb Advanced SAN Switch
D:HP 4Gb Virtual Connect Fibre Channel Module
E:Brocade 4Gb SAN Switch in Access Gateway mode
Correct Answers: D, E

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NO.16 Which password authentication service can be used on Brocade switches in addition to the local switch
database?
A: NIS
B: LDAP
C: RADIUS
D: Kerberos
Correct Answers: C

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NO.17 What is an advantage of iSCSI when compared to Fibre Channel?
A: less protocol overhead
B: no additional customer knowledge required
C: easily provisioned through HP Storage Essentials SRM
D: existing Ethernet infrastructure can be used to create a SAN
Correct Answers: D

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NO.18 Which zoning enforcement types do Fibre Channel switches provide to protect against unauthorized
access? (Select two.)
A:access authorization
B:port-zoning authentication
C:RADIUS server authentication
D:directory access authorization
E:soft-plus zoning by login authentication
Correct Answers: A, E

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NO.19 Which tool would you use to quickly survey a SAN environment?
A: HP SAN Surveyor
B: HP SAN Designer
C: HP CommandView
D: HP SAN Visibility Tool
Correct Answers: D

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NO.20 Which tool helps you design a SAN that includes HP Blade servers?
A: SANsurfer
B: SAN Visibility
C: SAN Designer
D: Blade Designer
Correct Answers: C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-M17
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Performance Center User Site)
Questions et réponses: 62 Q&As

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NO.1 From where can your teams view analysis data for your load tests?
A.from the user site
B.from the controller machine
C.from the Local Area Network
D.from the load generator machine
Answer: A

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NO.2 In Performance Center architecture, which component allows you to manage resources and supervise
technical information?
A.Utility server
B.Database server
C.Administration site
D.Controller machine
Answer: C

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NO.3 What type of valid input data is already resident in the Application Under Tests (AUT) database?
A.master data
B.external data
C.user generated data
D.Performance Center data
Answer: A

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NO.4 What does the Timeout tab set the timeout interval for? (Select two.)
A.commands
B.Vuser quotas
C.Vuser scripts
D.Vuser elapsed time
E.number of monitors
Answer: AD

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NO.5 Where do you configure the post-run analysis settings?
A.in the Change Project page
B.in the Options tab of the Timeslots page
C.in the General tab on the Project Status page
D.in the Timeslot Details tab of the Timeslots page
Answer: B

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NO.6 When you upload a VuGen script into Performance Center, which file extension change needs to be
made?
A..USZ to .ZIP
B..ZIP to .NET
C..DOC to .ZIP
D..HTML to .DOC
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is Performance Centers primary tool for developing Vuser scripts?
A.VuGen
B.Quality Center
C.Quick Test Professional
D.performance engineers
Answer: A

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NO.8 What does Vuser initialization refer to? (Select two.)
A.access the User site
B.prepare the Controller monitors
C.prepare the Vusers for a load test
D.gather available Timeslot information
E.prepare the Load Generator machines for a load test run
Answer: CE

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NO.9 What is the minimum length of a Timeslot?
A.one hour
B.30 minutes
C.45 minutes
D.15 minutes
Answer: B

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NO.10 The database server receives information from four components. What are these components? (Select
four.)
A.User site
B.File server
C.Utility server
D.Administration site
E.Controller machine
F.Load generator machine
Answer: ACDE

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Code d'Examen: HP0-S19
Nom d'Examen: HP (Integrating and Managing HP ProLiant ML/DL in the Enterprise)
Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

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NO.1 Which function can HP Insight Diagnostics Offline Edition perform that the Online Edition cannot?
A. scheduling of survey capturesB. printing of multiple copies of the diagnostic results
C. testing of all ProLiant Server subsystems
D. testing of database connectivity
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which utility does HP recommend to measure disk I/O performance in HP ProLiant servers?
A. Microsoft performance monitor
B. Array Diagnostic Utility
C. IO meter
D. SQL stress test
Answer: B

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NO.3 What should you consider when planning for cluster (active/active) failover?
A. capacity of shared storage
B. failover resource requirements on the surviving node
C. data transfer speed of shared storage
D. data integrity between both nodes
E. heartbeat communications speed between nodes
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the threshold Windows sets for pages/sec to represent a memory bottleneck situation?
A. 2
B. 20
C. 50
D. 100
E. 200
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which hardware support services are offered by HP Care Packs? (Select two.)
A. Critical Service
B. 8-hour Call-to-Repair
C. 6-hour Same Business Day
D. Next Business Day
E. Return Service
Answer: DE

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NO.6 Your customer has installed a new server into their environment. When is the best time to perform the
initial performance baseline?
A. during peak daily operation
B. during idle periods of the system
C. during normal daily operation
D. during annual peak operation time
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which types of migration can HP ProLiant Essentials Server Migration Pack support? (Select three.)
A. Virtual to Physical (V2P)
B. Virtual to Virtual (V2V)
C. Physical to Integrity (P2I)
D. Physical to Virtual (P2V)
Answer: ABC

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NO.8 What is the maximum number of HP ProLiant host systems that you can connect to an MSA2000fc?
A. 4
B. 16
C. 64
D. 128
Answer: C

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
Performance Management Pack (PMP) provides tools to assist in monitoring server performance. Which
tool is shown in the exhibit?
A. Offline Analysis
B. Online Analysis
C. Static Analysis Report
D. CSV File Generator
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which SMS utility enables you to remove an HP-specific SMS database and WMI elements installed by
the Setup Wizard?
A. hpSync
B. hpScan
C. hpSMSTool
D. SMSITHU
Answer: C

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NO.11 ProLiant Essentials Server Migration Pack - Physical to ProLiant can migrate which file types? (Select
two.)
A. FAT32
B. EXT3
C. VMFS
D. NTFS
E. CIFS
Answer: AD

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NO.12 You are planning to use the HP Essentials Server Migration Pack to execute a Virtual-to-Virtual (V2V)
migration from one virtual machine host server to a new virtual machine host. HP SIM displays
the following status icons in the VM column for each machine:
Which action must be taken to allow the migration to proceed?
A. Install the VMM Agent on the source virtual machine host server.
B. Apply the VMM Pack license to the target virtual machine host server.
C. Install the VMM Agent on the target virtual machine host server.
D. Apply the VMM Pack license to the source virtual machine host server.
Answer: B

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NO.13 You are planning a disaster recovery plan. Under optimal system configuration, what is the average
time taken for an array expansion?
A. 45 minutes per gigabyte
B. 30 minutes per gigabyte
C. 15 minutes per gigabyte
D. 5 minutes per gigabyte
Answer: D

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NO.14 A remote branch office has a DL580 G5 Server reporting a memory error on the Windows system
event log. The server has four 1GB memory DIMMs. What is the quickest way to tell which specific
memory module has failed?
A. Open up the server and replace the memory modules one by one.
B. Run the online HP Insight Diagnostic Utility.
C. Check the Systems Insight Display.
D. Run the Array Diagnostic Utility (ADU).
Answer: C

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NO.15 Why would you use the HP ProLiant Essentials Virtual Machine Management Pack if you already
manage your virtual machines with another product such as VMware VirtualCenter? (Select three.)
A. It uses fewer resources on the Central Management Server.
B. It ties into VirtualCenter and allows for actions based on predictive failures.
C. It ties directly into HP SIM to provide a single management view.
D. It manages VMs from MS, Citrix and VMware.E. It is available at no cost.
Answer: BCD

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NO.16 When installing HP Insight Integration for OpenView NNM, which primary processes are installed?
(Select two.)
A. CPQWEB
B. CPQDIS
C. CPQTRAPD
D. CPQMAP
E. CPQRILOE
Answer: BD

HP   HP0-S19   HP0-S19   HP0-S19

NO.17 A junior system administrator new to Linux asks you which tool to use to view processor utilization
information on a ProLiant server running SUSE Linux Enterprise Server 10. Which tool do you
recommend?
A. monitor
B. topmon
C. vmstat
D. cpustat
Answer: C

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NO.18 A customer wants to purchase an MSA storage solution that meets the following requirements:
Provides end-to-end SAS host modular flexible platform in a high capacity 2U disk drive external direct
storage system
Uses both Small Form Factor (SFF) SAS and SATA disk drives
Supports cascading to a second MSA for future expansion
Hot plug compatibility
RAID 6 with ADG
Supports dual port SAS drives
Which solutions would you recommend? (Select two.)
A. MSA20
B. MSA30
C. MSA50
D. MSA60
E. MSA70
Answer: DE

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NO.19 When a second processor is added to a DL380 G5 Server running Linux, a kernel panic occurs. What
is the easiest way to correct the problem? (Select two.)
A. Reinstall the Linux operating system.
B. Replace the second processor.
C. Replace the DL380 G5 Server.
D. Swap the location of the two processors so the lower stepping processor is installed in processor
socket 1.
E. Upgrade the system ROM.
Answer: DE

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NO.20 Your customer wants to implement a High-Performance Computing (HPC) environment consisting of
AMD Opteron processor-based ProLiant servers. The customer wants it to run a Linux OS and
take advantage of the HP InfiniBand cluster interconnect. Which cluster solution meets these
requirements?
A. HP ProLiant Cluster F200
B. HP ProLiant Cluster F500
C. HP Cluster Platform 3000
D. HP Cluster Platform 4000
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: HP0-754
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP OpenView Operations I (7.x) UNIX )
Questions et réponses: 139 Q&As

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NO.1 The OpenView Operations Agent collects performance metrics with the help of the
coda process. This coda process is_______.
A. the last release of the OV Performance Agent integrated into the OVO agent
B. a replacement for the OV Performance Agent that must be purchased separately
C. an add-on module that has to be installed on the top of the OVO agent
D. a component included as part of the OVO agent
Answer: D

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NO.2 The embedded performance component collects basic metrics on the managed node.
The amount of free disk space recommended for the database used to store these
metrics is ______Mb.
A. 10
B. 25
C. 50
D. 100
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which three of the following can be monitored by OpenView Operations agents?
Choose 3 that apply.
A. application logfiles
B. Databases processes
C. DMI events
D. MPE/iX Console Messages
Answer: A, B, D

HP   certification HP0-754   HP0-754   HP0-754

NO.4 The hostname for a managed node has changed. Will OVO automatically detect
this?
A. Yes, OVO internally maps the new hostname to the old hostname as stored in the
OVO database. This is because the IP address is used as a unique identifier.
B. No, if the hostname or the IP address of a managed node has been modified, this
change also needs to be made in OVO.
C. Yes, but only new messages from these hosts will be intercepted. You must change the
hostname in the Modify Node window before you distribute templates or install a new
OVO agent version on that managed node.
D. No, OVO will only detect the change after both the Management Server processes and
Managed Node processes have been stopped and restarted.
Answer: B

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NO.5 From the Java GUI, it is NOT possible to print_________
A. message browser contents.
B. message properties.
C. application definitions.
D. application output.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which three of the following are management aspects which are covered by
OpenView Operations? Choose 3 that apply.
A. Print Management
B. Operations Management
C. Backup Management
D. Integrated Network & System Management
E. Management by Exception
Answer: B, D, E

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NO.7 How can an operator email messages from the message browser to the OpenView
Operations administrator?
A. Drag and drop directly from the browser to an email application.
B. Highlight the opc_adm icon and use Edit->Copy and Edit->Paste in the message
browser.
C. Run the opc_msgdump command, cut out the relevant messages from the file and
paste into an email application.
D. Save the messages into a file and mail the file or attach it to an outgoing mail
message.
Answer: D

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NO.8 All message attributes can be used as filter criteria for checking incoming messages.
Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
A. An incoming message must have the same values for all attributes that are specified in
a condition to create a match. Regarding message attributes the specified attributes are
checked as AND conditions.
B. If an attribute is NOT specified, the filter ignores this attribute in the incoming
messages and compares only the other attributes.
C. If more than one value is specified for an attribute, only one of the values must match.
The specified values within one attribute are checked as OR conditions.
D. When defining conditions for a log file encapsulator template, the user needs to
specify only the message text pattern and the message group,
Answer: D

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NO.9 Where can the OVO configuration data be stored?
A. ISAM files
B. Oracle RDBMS
C. Ingres RDBMS
D. Sybase RDBMS
Answer: B

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NO.10 When the OVO agent is started, the embedded performance component starts
collecting metrics automatically on the managed node. What is the best way to
disable AND de-register the embedded performance component?
A. kill coda
B. opcagt -stop coda
C. opcsubagt -disable
D. opcagt -stop -id 12
Answer: C

HP   HP0-754   HP0-754   HP0-754

NO.11 Which of the following statements regarding history download is TRUE? Choose
one answer.
A. New filtering criteria for the history download are NOT available for selection from
the GUI.
B. You can specify the option -copy to keep the history messages in the database when
using opchistdwn.
C. You can selectively upload data from files using opchistupld+filter criteria.
D. It is NOT possible to specify exclusions (e.g. -not_node).
Answer: A

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NO.12 What is the meaning of Column U in the Message Browser?
A. unknown severity
B. unknown event type
C. unmatched condition
Answer: C

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NO.13 To correctly configure the proxy setting before calling URLs in the embedded web
browser of the Java GUI __________.
A. use the Embedded Web Browser Setting dialog box
B. do nothing. The correct flag is set by default for all platforms
C. change the flag in the file /opt/OV/www/htdocs/ito_op/embedded_web
D. do nothing if the NCSA-Apache web server is used. It is automatically installed and
configured with the OVO installation
Answer: A

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NO.14 Within the Java GUI, how do you open a Filter Browser to only show OVO
messages from a specific node?
A. Select the node in the explorer-like tree on the left hand side, press the right mouse
button and select "Filter Active Message".
B. Highlight the node and then select from the menu bar View->Some. In this case, it will
automatically open the appropriate Filter Browser.
C. Select from the menu bar Show->Filtering->Modify Filter and select the appropriate
node name presented in the list box.
D. Double-click the node in the explorer-like tree on the left hand side and then select
"Show Active Messages" from the pop-up window.
Answer: A

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NO.15 The Message Browser entries can be sorted within the Java GUI by_
A. the OVO Administrator configuring the appropriate criteria when creating/modifying
the user within the Motif GUI.
B. specifying the sorting criteria in the view browser dialog.
C. specifying the sorting criteria in the Edit -> Preferences window.
D. clicking on the appropriate column heading to change sorting sequence from
ascending to descending or vice versa.
Answer: D

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NO.16 How can a user change a message condition?
A. An operator selects Window->Message Source Templates and selects a template in a
group, double clicks on the template and then modifies the conditions.
B. An operator selects the affected node(s) in the Managed Nodes submap, then uses the
mouse pop-up menu to get to the option Modify Conditions.
C. The administrator or a template administrator opens the window Message Source
Templates, selects a template in a group, double clicks on the template and then modifies
the conditions.
D. The various users send messages to the OpenView Operations Administrator via the
Actions ->Inform Administrator menu. The administrator changes the templates based on
the requests.
Answer: C

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NO.17 What are three ways you can open a message browser to show only messages from a
certain node? Choose 3 that apply.
A. Select the node in any ovw submap (e.g. Managed Nodes window, Node Bank, Node
Group Bank) and then select Actions->View Browser.
B. Select the node in any ovw submap and then from the menu bar select
View->Message of Selected Symbols in the Message Browser menu bar.
C. Open the Browser view setting dialog from the Message Browser menu bar by
View->Some...and enter the node name in the corresponding selection field.
D. Double-click the node in any ovw submap and then double-click the browser icon.
E. Select the node in any ovw submap and then open the Browser View setting dialog
from the Message browser menu bar by View->Some...and load the node name by
pressing "Get selected symbol".
Answer: B, C, E

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NO.18 Which two tools can be used to test OVO pattern matching? Choose 2 that apply.
A. opcsrvtst
B. opcmomchk
C. Use the test option in the template screen of the OVO GUI.
D. opcconfig
E. opcpat
Answer: C, E

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NO.19 Can an operator modify the criticality of a message in the ITO browser?
A. Yes, but they must first own the message.
B. Yes, but only using the JAVA GUI.
C. Yes, but only if nobody else owns the message.
D. Yes, they can perform the change regardless of the type of GUI and whether the
message is owned or not.
Answer: C

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NO.20 The embedded performance component collects basic metrics and stores them. The
values of these metrics are stored______ .
A. in the Oracle database
B. on the management server in a proprietary data store
C. in an xml file on the managed node
D. in a proprietary database on the managed node
Answer: D

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