Dernières SAP C-TSCM42-65 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: C-TSCM42-65
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Production - Planning & Manufacturing with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP5)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Where can you define the valid receivers for production order costs?
A. In the valuation variant
B. In the production scheduling profile
C. In the settlement profile
D. In the costing variant
Answer: C

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NO.2 What sequence do you follow in master data maintenance to define the production of a
material?
A. Create BOM -> Create work centers -> Create routing -> Carry out component assignment in BOM
or routing
B. Create BOM -> Create work centers -> Create routing -> Carry out component assignment in work
center
C. Create routing -> Create work centers -> Create BOM -> Carry out component assignment in BOM
or routing
D. Create work centers -> Create routing -> Create BOM -> Carry out component assignment in work
center
Answer: A

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NO.3 What does SAP ERP mean?
A. SAP ERP is a planning system in which extended planning processes can be mapped.
B. SAP ERP is a system hardware that includes modules for purchasing, sales and distribution,
materials management, production and so on.
C. SAP ERP is a technological platform, on the basis of which customer-specific extensions can be
imported.
D. SAP ERP is an application that an enterprise can use to manage its business processes efficiently.
Answer: D

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NO.4 When analyzing the SAP ECC order report for a planned order for a finished product, you
discover that one of the assemblies will not be available in time for the scheduled final assembly
because of automatic forward scheduling.
Which planning procedure do you use to create a feasible production plan from a requirements
planning perspective?
A. Interactive single-item planning for the delayed assembly
B. Multi-level single-item planning with the "simulation mode" option
C. Total planning online
D. Multi-level single-item planning with the "display material list" option
Answer: B

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NO.5 What features related to process orders can be used to fulfill Good Manufacturing Practices
(GMP) requirements? (Choose three)
A. Availability check
B. Digital signature
C. Resource selection
D. Electronic batch record
E. Approved master recipes
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.6 Which of the following functions does SAP Supply Chain Management (SCM) offer?
A. Planning and optimization of supply chains across company boundaries.
B. Optimization of the procurement strategy with the supplier pool.
C. Product development, safety, quality, and maintenance.
D. Communication to customers through different interaction channels.
Answer: A

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NO.7 For which of the following objects can you enter a confirmation? (Choose two)
A. Production order
B. Production order operation
C. Trigger Point
D. Work Center
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 Which functions can be triggered before releasing a production order? (Choose three)
A. Confirmation
B. Selection of a routing
C. Scheduling
D. Stock determination
E. Selection of a BOM
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.9 Which of the following statements about consumption are correct? (Choose two)
A. Consumption takes place on the material level between the planned independent requirements
and the planned orders.
B. Consumption parameters (consumption mode and consumption interval) can be set in the
material master or in the MRP group.
C. Consumption is restructured with the planning run.
D. Consumption can take place between order reservations and planned independent requirements,
depending on the strategy.
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 What is a feature of the simu-lation mode for material requirements planning in SAP ECC?
A. It posts planning results to the database automatically.
B. It propagates exception messages from a component to the finished product.
C. It calculates the delay time which may occur in planning.
D. It triggers multilevel bottom-up scheduling.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: C-ISR-60
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Retail with SAP ERP 6.0)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Which one of the following price determination elements must be configured so that certain
condition lines of a purchase order will appear on the print output?
A. Access sequence
B. Condition type
C. Calculation schema
D. Schema group
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following are the effects of a goods issue posting for an outbound delivery in SAP
Retail? (Choose three)
A. The stock quantities are updated in the article master.
B. The value change is updated in the stock accounts in Financial Accounting (FI).
C. The status of the outbound delivery is updated in the document flow.
D. The pick quantity in the transfer order is updated.
E. The stock type Blocked stock changes.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 Which of the following are the IT scenarios powered by SAP NetWeaver Master Data
Management (MDM)?
A. SRM Master Data Management, SRM Master Data Consolidation, SRM Master Data
Harmonization
B. Central Master Data Management, Master Data Consolidation, Master Data Harmonization
C. ERP Master Data Management, ERP Master Data Consolidation, ERP Master Data Harmonization
D. Central Customer Master Data Integration, Customer Rich Product-Content Management, Master
Data Harmonization
Answer: B

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NO.4 You create a sales order for the wholesale distribution chain. In the pricing analysis you notice
that the customer discount you have just created has not been included.
Which of the following settings made in sales price determination in SAP Retail might be the cause
of this? (Choose two)
A. The determined pricing procedure does not contain the new condition type Customer discount.
B. The condition record for your new customer discount was created for the wrong distribution
chain.
C. A validity date has been defined in the access sequence that is assigned to the condition type
Customer discount.
D. The condition record for the customer discount is set as: cannot be changed manually.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Where is the supplementary calculation schema assigned?
A. Condition type
B. Calculation schema
C. Access sequence
D. Schema group
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following functions are offered by replenishment planning in SAP Retail? (Choose
three)
A. Calculating requirements for merchandise category value-only articles.
B. Determining requirements for stores based on the stock situation.
C. Considering different customer stock types.
D. Analyzing customers' sales data and stock data.
E. Generating follow-on documents.
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.7 For which of the following key figures can you maintain plan data in a purchasing list in SAP
Retail? (Choose three)
A. Stock transfer
B. Initial buy fix
C. Initial buy variable
D. Putaway
E. Allocation table
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.8 Which of the following functions does the purchasing list offer? (Choose three)
A. Selecting characteristic values for a purchasing list item.
B. Entering planned quantities for seasonal articles per assortment.
C. Planning the number of styles of seasonal articles per vendor.
D. Planning new articles that do not yet have an article master record.
E. Creating prepacks and displays.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.9 Which of the following needs to be considered when using the replenishment based inventory
management procedure?
A. Only the unrestricted-use stock type is monitored.
B. Documents are created for all goods movements.
C. Different stock types are monitored.
D. Documents are created for goods receipts only.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Where in the Merchandise Category Hierarchy would you find a Reference Article?
A. Any Merchandise Category Hierarchy Level
B. Merchandise Category
C. Merchandise Category Hierarchy Top Level
D. Merchandise Category Hierarchy Level and Merchandise Category
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 200-045
Nom d'Examen: Isilon (Isilon Clustered Storage Professional Exam)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 You have a three node cluster configured with +1, and are preparing to add a fourth node. Which of the
following describes the impact of adding the fourth node in regard to file striping? (Choose 1)
A.Files were striped 2+1 with three nodes, and will now be striped 3+1 with four nodes.
B.Files were striped 2+1 with three nodes, and will now be striped 2+1 with four nodes.
C.There is no impact to file striping for existing data, but new data will be striped 3+1
D.Files were striped 2+1 with three nodes, and will now be striped 2+2 with four nodes.
Answer:A

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NO.2 You have a three node cluster with SmartConnect configured. Which of the following is a correct
statement in regard to the SmartConnect virtual IP? (Choose 1)
A.The SmartConnect virtual IP is active on the highest-numbered node of the cluster. If that node fails, the
virtual IP will move to node 1.
B.The SmartConnect virtual IP is active on node 1. If node 1 fails, the virtual IP will move to node 2.
C.The SmartConnect virtual IP is active on all nodes of the cluster.
D.The SmartConnect virtual IP moves dynamically between nodes of the cluster based on node
performance.
Answer:B

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NO.3 You have a five node IQ 1920 cluster protected with +1. How many nodes of the cluster have to be up
in order for OneFS to allow writes to the file system? (Choose 1)
A.At least four nodes must be up
B.At least two nodes must be up
C.At least three nodes must be up
D.All five nodes must be up
Answer:C

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NO.4 Which of the following commands can be used to start the FlexProtect phase of the restriper? (Choose
1)
A.Enter "isi config", then "flexprotect start"
B.Enter "isi config", then "restripe start flexprotect"
C."isi restripe start flexprotect"
D."isi flexprotect start"
Answer:C

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NO.5 SyncIQ throttle limits can be applied on a per-replication policy basis. (True/False)
A.True
B.False
Answer:B

Isilon examen   200-045   200-045   200-045   200-045

NO.6 Which command line tool is used to manage replacing a failed disk drive? (Choose 1)
A.The "isi devices" tool
B.No command line tool is used - replaced drives are detected automatically by the node.
C.The "isi config" tool
D.The "isi disks" tool
Answer:A

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NO.7 Which of the following commands can be used to view the status of restripe operations? (Choose 2)
A."isi status"
B."isi config"
C."restripe status"
D."isi restripe"
Answer:A D

Isilon examen   200-045   200-045   200-045   200-045

NO.8 Which of the following best describes the expected behavior when attempting to add a node running
OneFS 4.5 to a cluster running OneFS 4.1? (Choose 1)
A.The node will be joined to the cluster.
B.You will be prompted to upgrade the cluster.
C.You will be prompted to either upgrade the cluster, or downgrade the node
D.You will be prompted to downgrade the node.
Answer:C

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NO.9 You have a three node cluster. One node fails, and is in a "DOWN" state. How will the restriper
respond to this situation? (Choose 1)
A.The FlexProtect phase of the restriper will start automatically
B.The AutoBalance phase of the restriper will start automatically
C.The Collect phase of the restriper will start automatically
D.No phase of the restriper will start automatically
Answer:D

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NO.10 Which of the following statements about SmartConnect Advanced is NOT correct? (Choose 1)
A.SmartConnect supports CIFS failover
B.SmartConnect supports NFS failover
C.SmartConnect allows individual nodes to be included or excluded from zones
D.SmartConnect is based on standard DNS
Answer:A

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NO.11 You have a cluster with the SnapshotIQ module licensed. The ability for users to view and access the
".snapshot" directories can be controlled per protocol. (True/False)
A.True
B.False
Answer:A

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NO.12 Which of the following nodes has the highest ratio of performance per TB of storage? (Choose 1)
A.IQ 3000
B.IQ 6000
C.IQ 1920
D.EX 6000
Answer:C

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NO.13 SnapShotIQ is configured with default settings. You take a one-time snapshot called "test" of the
"/ifs/data" directory. In which of the following ways can you access this snapshot? (Choose 2)
A.Via the "/ifs/.snapshot/test" directory
B.Via the "/snapshots/data" directory
C.Via the "/ifs/data/.snapshot/test" directory
D.Via the "/ifs/data/copies" directory
Answer:A C

Isilon examen   200-045   200-045

NO.14 The client workstations on your network are configured to use DNS server 10.10.10.1, which is
authoritative for the domain "isilon.com". You would like to configure SmartConnect with a zone named
"cluster.isilon.com". Your SmartConnect virtual IP is 10.10.10.100. Which of the following statements is
most accurate in regard to DNS and SmartConnect? (Choose 1)
A.The DNS server 10.10.10.1 must be configured with a delegation (NS) record delegating
"cluster.isilon.com" to the SmartConnect virtual IP 10.10.10.100.
B.The DNS server 10.10.10.1 must be configured with a host (A) record resolving "cluster.isilon.com" to
the SmartConnect virtual IP 10.10.10.100.
C.In order to utilize SmartConnect, the client workstations must be configured to use 10.10.10.100 as
their DNS server.
D.The SmartConnect service must be configured to use 10.10.10.1 as its DNS server
Answer:A

Isilon   200-045   200-045   200-045   200-045

NO.15 Which of the following methods can be used to verify connectivity to a LDAP directory server? (Choose
1)
A.From the command line of a node, use the "ldapsearch" utility.
B.From the command line of a node, enter "isi ldap config". Pick menu option 3 "Check server
connectivity".
C.From the WebAdmin of a node, go to "File System" / "Directory Services" / "LDAP Services". Click
"Check server connectivity"
D.From the command line of a node, enter "isi_ldap_check".
Answer:A

Isilon   200-045 examen   200-045 examen   200-045

NO.16 Which of the following best describes OneFS's NIC redundancy feature? (Choose 1)
A.NIC redundancy allows dynamic IP routing to occur between default gateways accessible via the
External-1 and External-2 networks.
B.NIC redundancy allows External-1 and External-2 to be aggregated into one logical link, so that either
NIC can fail without interrupting external network access.
C.NIC redundancy allows External-1 and External-2 to be utilized in an Active/Passive failover mode.
D.NIC redundancy allows clients to connect to the same file sharing protocols via either External-1 or
External-2.
Answer:B

Isilon   200-045   certification 200-045   200-045   200-045

NO.17 You have a three node IQ 3000 cluster. How many phases of the restriper can be active at one time?
(Choose 1)
A.Three phases of the restriper can be active at one time.
B.Only one phase of the restriper can be active at one time.
C.Six phases of the restriper can be active at one time.
D.Nine phases of the restriper can be active at one time
Answer:B

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NO.18 Which of the following statements best describes the benefits of the file system journal in OneFS?
(Choose 1)
A.The file system journal is used for coalescing writes before committing them to disk.
B.The file system journal is used to store metadata about the file system in a reliable way.
C.The file system journal is used to permit multiple threads to commit writes to the same file.
D.The file system journal is used to ensure the consistency of the file system.
Answer:D

Isilon   200-045   200-045

NO.19 Which of the following statements best describe the use of SNMP with an Isilon cluster? (Choose 2)
A.The cluster can be configured via SNMP
B.The cluster can generate SNMP traps based on Alerts
C.The cluster can generate SNMP traps based on configuration file changes
D.The cluster can be monitored via SNMP
E.The file system can be browsed via SNMP
Answer:B D

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NO.20 You have a three node cluster. The AutoBalance phase of the restriper is running. A disk drive fails.
Which of the following best describes the cluster's response to this failure? (Choose 1)
A.The AutoBalance phase of the restriper completes. Once AutoBalance is finished, the FlexProtect
phase of the restriper runs to repair data from the disk failure.
B.The AutoBalance phase of the restriper is cancelled. The Collect phase of the restriper runs to repair
data from the disk failure. After Collect completes, AutoBalance is start.
C.Since the AutoBalance phase of the restriper is already running, it will repair data from the disk failure.
D.The AutoBalance phase of the restriper is cancelled. The FlexProtect phase of the restriper runs to
repair data from the disk failure. After FlexProtect completes, AutoBalance is started
Answer:D

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Code d'Examen: 132-S-708.1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Specialist: Avaya Voice Self-Service Design Elective Exam)
Questions et réponses: 77 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two represent native capabilities of Avaya Dialog Designer? (Choose two.)
A.Speaker Verification
B.Application Simulation
C.TAS Application Development
D.VoiceXML Application Development
Answer:B D

certification Avaya   certification 132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1

NO.2 A customer currently has one contact center in Denver using Avaya Interactive Response (IR). They
use TDM, Speech Recognition (ASR), and Text-to-Speech (TTS). In addition to these features, their
applications are all written in TAS. They are very satisfied with the state of their current applications. They
are opening a new facility in another location and want to have the same Voice Self-Service applications
in this new location. They need the new location operational in four weeks. Cost is an issue. Since cost
and expediency are primary concerns, what would you suggest to add Voice Self-Service capacity to the
new location?
A.Add Avaya Voice Portal systems/ports in the new location.
B.Add Avaya Dialog Designer systems/ports in the new location.
C.Add Avaya Interactive Response systems/ports in the new location.
D.Add Avaya Interactive Response systems/ports to the primary location.
Answer:C

Avaya   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1   certification 132-S-708.1

NO.3 A thriving mail order business has a busy contact center that takes orders from existing and new
customers. This business has chosen to implement an Avaya Voice Self-Service solution to process
routine orders to reduce the staffing costs. They would like to implement a more sophisticated solution for
routing calls to agents, and make it seamless. They want callers to be identified, serviced, and if needed,
routed to an agent with minimal input from the caller. Which product integrates with Avaya Voice
Self-Service solutions to meet this need?
A.IBM WebSphere
B.Avaya Proactive Contact
C.Avaya Interaction Center
D.Call Management System
Answer:C

Avaya   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1 examen

NO.4 A company has decided to enter the ISV business and create custom Voice Self-Service applications for
Avaya platforms. They want to learn a single tool set and would like to be in this business for the
foreseeable future. Which skill set should they develop to be compatible with current and future Voice
Self-Service applications?
A.IVR Designer and VoiceXML
B.Dialog Designer and VoiceXML
C.Voice@Work and ScriptBuilder
D.IVR Designer and Transaction Assembly Script
Answer:B

Avaya   132-S-708.1 examen   certification 132-S-708.1   certification 132-S-708.1

NO.5 Which two hardware components are required for Avaya Voice Portal using Voice over IP? (Choose
two.)
A.NMS boards
B.Dialogic boards
C.Intel/AMD server
D.Communication Manager
Answer:C D

Avaya   132-S-708.1 examen   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1 examen

NO.6 Your customer's company has extensive web services architecture. All communication with customers
has been through web chat and email. Customer demand has required the company to setup a call center.
They can only afford to staff a few agents, and firmly believe that a speech application that accesses their
existing web services would fulfill 70-80% of their incoming calls. Which solution would meet their
requirements?
A.Avaya Voice Portal and IVR Designer
B.Avaya Interactive Response and IVR Designer
C.Avaya Voice Portal and Avaya Dialog Designer
D.Avaya Interactive Response and Avaya Dialog Designer
Answer:C

Avaya   certification 132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1

NO.7 A current Avaya Interactive Response (IR) customer is aware that the industry is moving to web-based
self-service architectures. In addition to the benefits of moving to advanced technologies, which two
business elements should be considered? (Choose two.)
A.need to replace the speech servers
B.capital investments in current equipment
C.time needed to convert any existing TAS applications to VoiceXML
D.inability to use VoIP until Avaya Voice Portal has been implemented
Answer:B C

certification Avaya   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1

NO.8 An Avaya Voice Self-Service customer has a limited service contract for IT and telecommunications.
They only have staff available from 9 a.m. to 5 p.m.; otherwise they are available using a pager. The
contact center uses Avaya contact center and reporting solutions. The contact center has staff onsite 24
hours a day. They actively monitor their agent pool and have offered to monitor Voice Self-Service ports if
they can have access to the data center to monitor the system's health. There are significant security
concerns with providing this type of access to non-technical staff. Which alternative would allow the
contact center personnel some monitoring capabilities?
A.Place the self-service ports behind the Communication Manager; monitor the ports on the Call
Management System (CMS) using real-time reports.
B.Place the self-service ports in front of the Communication Manager; monitor the ports on the Call
Management System (CMS) using real-time reports.
C.Place the self-service ports behind the Communication Manager; turn on Redirect On No-Answer
(RONA) to route calls to supervisory personnel when ports go out of service.
D.Place the self-service ports in front the Communication Manager; turn on Redirect On No-Answer
(RONA) to route calls to supervisory personnel when ports go out of service.
Answer:A

Avaya   certification 132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1 examen   132-S-708.1 examen

NO.9 A healthcare company operates a mail order prescription business. Its contact center primarily takes
orders from existing and new customers. Upper management has decided not to implement an Avaya
Voice Self-Service solution, but use a competitor instead. The IT staff believes that once they implement
the new system, it will not operate as advertised. The IT staff asks you what they can do to ensure that
their application development time is not wasted in the event that they ultimately decide to migrate to
Avaya Voice Portal in the future. What is the most cost-effective advice you can give the IT staff?
A.Advise them to create their application using the competitor's proprietary tool set.
B.Advise them to create an application that exposes the weaknesses of the competitor platform.
C.Advise them to escalate the decision about the platform since it will be very difficult to convert later on.
D.Advise them to create their application in VoiceXML so that there will be portability to Avaya Voice
Portal.
Answer:D

certification Avaya   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1 examen   132-S-708.1 examen   132-S-708.1

NO.10 A thriving mail order business has a busy contact center that takes orders from existing and new
customers. This business has chosen to implement an Avaya Voice Self-Service solution to process
routine orders to reduce the staffing costs. What are three benefits that this company can expect to derive
from implementing an Avaya Voice Self-Service solution? (Choose three.)
A.Agents can focus on complex customer issues.
B.Solution provides an effective 1-way voicemail solution.
C.Answers to common questions are available at any time.
D.Callers are connected directly to the agent of their choice.
E.Callers can be directed to routine information without agent assistance.
Answer:A C E

certification Avaya   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1

NO.11 Which two application servers are supported by Avaya Dialog Designer? (Choose two.)
A.Microsoft IIS
B.Apache Tomcat
C.IBM WebSphere
D.Oracle J2EE Web Server
Answer:B C

Avaya   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1 examen   132-S-708.1   certification 132-S-708.1

NO.12 A thriving mail order business has a busy contact center that takes orders from existing and new
customers. To process routine orders and reduce staffing costs, they have chosen to implement an Avaya
Voice Self-Service solution. They want a sophisticated seamless solution for routing calls to agents. They
want callers to be identified, serviced (provide routine information), and routed to an agent with minimal
input from the caller. Which two speech elements would be required to implement this solution? (Choose
two.)
A.Voice over IP (VoIP)
B.Text-to-Speech (TTS)
C.Speech Recognition (SR)
D.Speech Application Builder (SAB)
Answer:B C

Avaya examen   certification 132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1

NO.13 Which three elements are required to run an Avaya Voice Portal solution with a speech application?
(Choose three.)
A.Speech Server
B.Domain Controller
C.Media Processing Platform (MPP)
D.Voice Portal Management System (VPMS)
E.Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
Answer:A C D

Avaya examen   132-S-708.1   certification 132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1 examen

NO.14 Which two methods can be used to get and put data between Avaya Interactive Response (IR) and
Avaya Interaction Center (IC)? (Choose two.)
A.LAN Gateway
B.DLG Connector
C.VOX Connector provided with IC
D.IC Connector provided with Avaya Dialog Designer
Answer:C D

certification Avaya   132-S-708.1 examen   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1 examen

NO.15 Which two hardware components are required for Avaya Interactive Response (IR) using Voice over IP?
(Choose two.)
A.NMS boards
B.Dialogic boards
C.Sun Sparc-based server
D.Communication Manager
Answer:C D

Avaya   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1

NO.16 A customer wants to answer technical support questions 24x7 yet avoid paying for increased staffing
for night and weekends. Forty-five percent of agent calls are simple fixes that include power-down and
power-up support, explaining where to obtain the three-page troubleshooting document, and the faxing of
that document. Agents also sell post-warranty maintenance plans and currently have only a 5% take rate
due to high call volumes from new customers. One solution is to off-load agent calls with an Avaya Voice
Self-Service solution. Which two activities are specifically targeted at reducing operational expenses and
meeting business requirements? (Choose two.)
A.Expensive customer service agents should not have to answer routine information requests.
B.Technical support calls should be delivered to customer service agents during the night and weekend
shifts.
C.Caller's intent should be effectively and consistently identified and then routed to a self-service
transaction or an agent.
D.Overflow calls should be routed to a voicemail system where they can describe their problem and get a
callback with the solution.
Answer:A C

Avaya   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1

NO.17 Which integration alternative provides optimal routing to an agent based on information gathered at any
given point within a Voice Self-Service application?
A.Avaya Interaction Center
B.Avaya Proactive Contact
C.Avaya Operational Analyst
D.Avaya Interactive Intelligence
Answer:A

Avaya   certification 132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1   certification 132-S-708.1

NO.18 A customer currently has one contact center in Los Angeles using CONVERSANT? They use TDM
and DTMF. They are dissatisfied with the state of their current applications. They want to use speech
applications to simplify classification and routing of customer calls. They also expect a much higher
resolution of calls within their Voice Self-Service environment. The customer has rigid IT standards. The
only approved server hardware is Intel-based. Servers must only be purchased through the IT department.
Which two Voice Self-Service components would closely align with the customer's requirements?
(Choose two.)
A.IVR Designer
B.Avaya Voice Portal
C.Avaya Dialog Designer
D.Avaya Interactive Response
Answer:B C

Avaya   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1 examen

NO.19 A thriving mail order business has a busy contact center that takes orders from existing and new
customers. To reduce staffing costs, this company has chosen to implement an Avaya Voice Self-Service
solution to process routine orders. They would like to implement a solution for placing calls to customers
when the status of their order changes (processed, shipped, cancelled). They want the calls to provide
the same information as if the customer had come in and requested it from the Avaya Voice Self-Service
solution. Which speech elements would be required to implement this solution?
A.Voice over IP (VoIP)
B.Text-to-Speech (TTS)
C.Speech Application Builder (SAB)
D.Open Speech Dialog Modules (OSDM)
Answer:B

Avaya   132-S-708.1 examen   132-S-708.1

NO.20 A garden supply retailer begins taking orders for spring bulbs in early winter. Last year, their customers
started calling for order shipment status as early as late winter. The contact center is open Monday
through Friday. This is a seasonal increase in call volume only. Which three benefits would an Avaya
Voice Self-Service solution provide? (Choose three.)
A.Equalize trunking requirements throughout the entire year.
B.Permit callers to connect to an agent during non-business hours.
C.Permit callers to check on the scheduled date of the shipment 24x7.
D.Eliminate the repetitive or routine task of providing the shipping date to the caller.
E.Reduces the time the caller waits for an agent by automatically providing the date of the scheduled
shipment
Answer:C D E

Avaya examen   certification 132-S-708.1   certification 132-S-708.1   certification 132-S-708.1

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Code d'Examen: 132-S-916
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Specialist - IP Office Implement and Support Elective Exam)
Questions et réponses: 135 Q&As

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NO.1 .An IP Office application will allow an individual to select protocols and interfaces that are to be
traced and decoded. The trace can either be captured directly to screen or as a log file for later
analysis. Traces from different protocols can be color coded to improve the clarity of large log files.
Which application is used for this?
A. Debug View
B. System Monitor
C. Delta Server
D. System Status Application
Answer: B

Avaya   132-S-916   132-S-916

NO.2 .An IP Office solution is sold to a customer who needs to connect two existing sites over their LAN.
Which two are required by Avaya to ensure the VoIP connection and calls work properly? (Choose
two.)
A. Firewall / filter
B. Network assessment
C. A separate voice network
D. Static addresses for the IP Office
Answer: B,D

Avaya   132-S-916   132-S-916   certification 132-S-916

NO.3 .Which three pieces of information does System Status Application provide? (Choose three.)
A. Configuration errors
B. Local IP Office license status
C. Trunk status
D. Extension status
E. Remote IP Office licensestatu
Answer: B,C,D

Avaya examen   132-S-916   132-S-916   132-S-916

NO.4 .An IP Office telephone user reports that a phone is not ringing for outside calls. What are three
possible reasons why this is happening? (Choose three.)
A. The IP Office locale is set to "A-Law".
B. The phone does not have the user profile logged onto the phone.
C. The ring volume is too low to hear.
D. The phone has been set to "Offhook Station".
E. The phone is set to "Do Not Disturb".
Answer: B,C,E

certification Avaya   132-S-916   132-S-916   132-S-916 examen   certification 132-S-916

NO.5 .A customer reports that IP Office users cannot access voicemail at certain times. Avaya has
requested that the customer reproduce the issue and provide traces. Which three steps can the
customer take to reproduce the reported issue? (Choose three.)
A. The customer can place test calls into voicemail.
B. The customer can use the 'IP Office System Monitor" andVoiceMail Pro debug logs to record
system activity.
C. The customer can use System Monitor to "Call Sync" on all calls in the system.
D. The customer can reboot the IP Office to see if it resolves the issue.
E. The customer can record the date and time of the reported issue.
Answer: A,B,E

Avaya   certification 132-S-916   132-S-916 examen   132-S-916   132-S-916

NO.6 .Your customer has an IP Office 412 system running version 4.2 where calls at times ring to wrong
extension numbers. Which three steps would you take to reproduce or validate the issue?
(Choose three.)
A. Use System Status Application to watch the call progress to verify which extension the call is
ringing to and why.
B. Use System Monitor and the Call / Packet information to follow the call progress to identify the
issue.
C. Use the telephone's display for the extension that is incorrectly ringing to determine how the
call was routed.
D. Use the Call Status application to watch the call progress to verify how the call is being routed
and to what extension it is being directed to.
E. Use the IP Office Manager application to verify that theVoiceMail call flow is configured
correctly.
Answer: A,B,C

Avaya   132-S-916   132-S-916

NO.7 .Which file validates the version of software that is to be loaded into the 4600 Series Telephone
set?
A. bbla0_83.scr
B. 46xxsettings.txt
C. 46xxsettings.scr
D. 46xxupgrade.scr
Answer: D

Avaya   132-S-916 examen   132-S-916   certification 132-S-916   certification 132-S-916

NO.8 .A customer using an IP Office system with a single PRI line is reporting difficulties when dialing
out. What are two reasons for this happening? (Choose two.)
A. There are not sufficient channels available for the number of callers on the system.
B. The PRI clock quality is set to Network instead of Fallback.
C. The PRI clock quality is set to Fallback instead of Network.
D. The internal CSU is enabled.
Answer: A,C

certification Avaya   certification 132-S-916   132-S-916

NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what would the default gateway for IP Office 1 be?
A. 10.10.1.1
B. 10.10.1.2
C. 192.168.10.100
D. 135.122.34.90
Answer: D

Avaya examen   132-S-916   132-S-916   132-S-916

NO.10 .When configuring Session Initiated Protocol (SIP) trunks with SIP authorization using an IP
address on an IP Office system which option must be set in the SIP Line configuration form for the
trunks to function correctly?
A. The customer's NAT IP address must be entered on the SIP line form.
B. The Primary Authentication Name must be set.
C. The compression mode must be set to automatic.
D. The ITSP IP address must be entered on the SIP line form.
Answer: D

Avaya   132-S-916   132-S-916 examen

NO.11 When installing IP Hardphones, the engineer wants to use the IEEE 802.3af standard to _
____.
A. Supply AC voltage to the IP Office
B. Supply power to the IPHardphones
C. Perform Layer 3 routing for IPHardphones
D. Filter multicast traffic to the appropriate IPHardphone
Answer: B

Avaya   132-S-916   132-S-916   132-S-916

NO.12 .A customer wants to have a simple conference bridge with four permanent bridges set up off of a
menu in VoiceMail Pro. The customer also wants each bridge protected with a different static PIN.
Where in the setup of this scenario would you enter the PIN?
A. On the General tab in the menu action
B. On the General tab for each transfer action
C. On the Telephone Number field in the IP Office Short Code
D. In the Properties box for each option in the Touch Tone tab in the menu action
Answer: B

Avaya   132-S-916 examen   132-S-916   132-S-916 examen

NO.13 Which three options does the IMS user have available in Microsoft?Outlook? (Choose three.)
A. Select IMS server.
B. Select Voicemail Box.
C. Select Voicemail server.
D. Select handset for VM playback.
E. Prompt before connecting to server.
Answer: B,D,E

certification Avaya   132-S-916   certification 132-S-916

NO.14 .When using SIP or H.323 trunks and the System Status Application, which three problems can be
tested using the System Status Application? (Choose three.)
A. Round trip delay
B. Receive jitter
C. Receive packet loss
D. Quality of Service (QoS) value
E. DSCPQoS value
Answer: A,B,C

Avaya   132-S-916   132-S-916 examen   132-S-916 examen   132-S-916

NO.15 A customer wants a quick way of putting callers through to the mailbox for hunt group 245
SalesAdmin. They want to be able to put the caller on hold and just dial 123. Which Short Code
should be used to accomplish this?
A. Telephone Number "SalesAdmin"
Feature VoiceMailCollect
B. Telephone Number "#SalesAdmin"
Feature VoiceMailCollect
C. Telephone Number 245
Feature VoiceMailCollect
D. Telephone Number "SalesAdmin"
Feature VoiceMailDrop
Answer: B

Avaya   certification 132-S-916   132-S-916 examen   132-S-916

NO.16 Recordings take up how much space on a hard drive?
A. 2MB per minute
B. 200KB per minute
C. 1MB per minute
D. 650KB per minute
Answer: C

certification Avaya   132-S-916   132-S-916   132-S-916   132-S-916

NO.17 .What is necessary to upgrade the firmware for the 4600/5600 series sets on an IP Office system?
A. Manager
B. Serial cable
C. Third-party FTP server
D. Null modem cable
Answer: A

Avaya   132-S-916   132-S-916 examen   132-S-916 examen   132-S-916 examen   certification 132-S-916

NO.18 .You have an Avaya IP 412 Office with the largest supported voice compression modules (VCMs)
on the system. What is the maximum number of data channels supported on this system?
A. 20
B. 50
C. 80
D. 100
Answer: D

Avaya   132-S-916 examen   132-S-916

NO.19 .Which Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) options are available in the IP Office?
A. Disabled, Enabled
B. Server, Enabled, Client
C. Server, Disabled, Client,DialIn
D. Server, Client, Disabled
Answer: C

certification Avaya   132-S-916   132-S-916 examen   certification 132-S-916   132-S-916

NO.20 .Which two operating systems are supported by VoiceMail Pro? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft Windows 2000
B. Microsoft Windows XP
C. Microsoft Windows 98 SE
D. Microsoft Windows NT
Answer: A,B

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Avaya 6002.1 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 6002.1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Aura(TM) Communication Manager and CM Messaging (R6.0) Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 69 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three are tests that can be performed to Verify a communication manager Messaging 6.0
application is working properly? (Choose three)
A. Verify the hunt group status
B. Check the messaging port status using the display port command
C. Call the messaging Hunt Group
D. Check the messaging port status using the status port command
E. Perform message waiting indication test
Answer: A,C,E

certification Avaya   certification 6002.1   6002.1 examen   6002.1   certification 6002.1   certification 6002.1

NO.2 On a media gateway G450, which slots are permitted for the MM 342?
A. V1 and V2
B. V6 and V6
C. V3 and V8
D. V5 and V7
Answer: C

Avaya   certification 6002.1   certification 6002.1

NO.3 Which screen is used while upgrading the system platform from release 6.0.0.09 to release 6.0.0.11?
A. Communication manager Web interface
B. Console domain Server Management Path management
C. Console domain Server Management Platform Upgrade
D. Console domain Virtual Machine Management
Answer: C

Avaya   certification 6002.1   6002.1 examen   6002.1   6002.1 examen

NO.4 Hunt group number 99, with group extension 4199, is administered for messaging.
Which command needs to be executed at the SAT terminal to troubleshoot hunt group 99?
A. Shoe tracelog huntgroup 4199
B. View logs real time huntgroup 99
C. Display real time logs hunt group 99
D. List trace hunt-group 4199
Answer: D

certification Avaya   6002.1   6002.1   certification 6002.1

NO.5 A customer needs to set up SIP integration on Communication Manager Messaging Application
What are three pieces of information that are needed to meet this requirement? (Choose three)
A. Signaling group number
B. SIP domain
C. Transport Method
D. Extension length
E. Hunt Group number
Answer: B,C,D

Avaya   6002.1   6002.1   6002.1   6002.1

NO.6 Which two series support RAID 5 configuration for CM6.0? (Choose two)
A. S8730 Server with 8 GB RAM
B. S8800 Server with 12 GB RAM
C. S8510 Server with 8 GB RAM
D. S8300D Server with 8 GB RAM
Answer: B,C

Avaya   certification 6002.1   6002.1   6002.1 examen   6002.1 examen

NO.7 A customer is planning to upgrade from CM 5X to CM 6.0 an existing 8510 server.
What is the total minimum memory requirement for this upgrade?
A. 4 GB RAM
B. 8 GB RAM
C. 12 GB RAM
D. 16 GB RAM
Answer: B

Avaya   6002.1   certification 6002.1   6002.1   6002.1 examen   6002.1

NO.8 Which three statements about CM_Duplex CM 6.0 are true?
A. Software duplication is available, but hardware duplication is not available.
B. The S8510 server is not used for duplication
C. Server duplication is configured via Failover
option on CDROMs web interface
D. S8730 with DAL 2 card does not support server duplication in CM 6.0.
E. The CM duplex template supports CMM
Answer: A,B,D

Avaya examen   6002.1 examen   6002.1 examen   6002.1   6002.1

NO.9 When troubleshooting a system fault, if the web interface or SAT are unavailable, which method should
be used?
A. SAL
B. TTY2
C. CLI
D. MODEM
Answer: C

Avaya   certification 6002.1   6002.1   6002.1 examen   6002.1

NO.10 Which gateway command resets the Gateway back to factory default?
A. Reset
B. Restart
C. Softboot
D. Nvram init
Answer: D

Avaya   6002.1   certification 6002.1   certification 6002.1   certification 6002.1

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Avaya meilleur examen 7003.1, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 7003.1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Communication Server 1000 for Avaya Aura Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer wants to build a new Ip node on their Communication Server (CS) 1000E system with three
Signaling Servers. This node will support virtual trunks, IP media services, TPS and personnel directories.
A technician logs into Elements manager to complete the configuration, after creating and saving the
node configuration, the transfer now option chosen, then the servers are selected, the start sync is
selected followed by restart application.
What is expected outcome from the system?
A. The node file will be transferred from Signaling Servers to the call servers, and INI files will be
transferred from the call server to the selected servers.
B. The node file will be transferred from Call Servers to the Signaling servers, and the INI files will be
transferred from the Call Servers to the selected servers.
C. The node file will be transferred from Signaling Servers to the Call Server, and the INI files will be
transferred from Call Servers to the Signaling servers.
D. The node will be transferred from Element manager to the call server, and INI files will be transferred
from Element manager to CallServer.
Answer: B

Avaya   7003.1   7003.1   7003.1

NO.2 A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 7 x system with a System Manager as the
primary Security Server that has been designated as a Deployment Server. The application file (.nai) has
been uploaded to the deployment manager library. The customer has added an element to the security
domain and wants to deploy software applications to the element.
With respect to deployment services, which statement is false?
A. Deployment Manager has logicto prevent applications beingdeployed on unsupported hardware
platform.
B. MAS application has its own separate .nai file.
C. IM & Presence application has its own separate .nai file.
D. MAS can be deployed on the same server as Session Manager.
Answer: D

certification Avaya   7003.1 examen   7003.1 examen   certification 7003.1   7003.1

NO.3 A customer wants to deploy an Avaya Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 7x system in Avaya Aura solution.
They plan to have the system support 50,000 users.
Which system type will meet the customer ¯ s needs?
A. CS 1000E Co-Resident Call Server and Signaling Server
B. CS 1000E Standard Availability (SA)
C. CS 1000E High Availability (HA)
D. CS 1000E High Scalability (HS)
Answer: D

Avaya   certification 7003.1   certification 7003.1

NO.4 A technician is installing the Linux Base Operating System software on the CPDC server for the Avaya
Aura system and steps away while the software is loading. When the technician returns, he verifies that
the Linux base installation is complete and successfully installed.
What status can the technician verify to ensure the installation is successful?
A. There is no visible indication available.
B. The Linux server reboots and the FQDN login prompt appears.
C. The status of Linux Hardening items is displayed and the system reboots.
D. The Linux server reboots and the Linux Status Completion screen appears.
Answer: B

Avaya   7003.1   7003.1 examen   certification 7003.1   certification 7003.1

NO.5 A technician on a Communication Server 1000E SA Rls. 7x cannot get a second media Gateway to
register with the Call Server. The call server and Media Gateway 1 sit in the same 19 inch rack while
Media Gateway 2 is in another building and connected via the computer IP network Media Gateway 2 can
ping the Call Server but cannot register. The network is suspected of having a firewall or port blocking
issue.
Which diagnostic tool will help to isolate and identify a firewall or port blocking issue between the call
server and Media Gateway 2?
A. Gryphon Tool
B. Packet Capture Tool
C. Linux PPP Tool
D. Linux Modem Configuration Tool
Answer: B

Avaya examen   7003.1 examen   7003.1   7003.1   7003.1

NO.6 Refer to the exhibit.
A Communication Server 1000E Rls. 7 x customer is adding a new Human Resources department with
eight IP telephone users. The customer has asked for the telephones to be programmed with consecutive
Directory numbers (DNs) from their DID range (2000-2099).
Which numbers sequence is available to meet the customer ¯ s r equ ir e m en t s?
A. 2001-2008
B. 2010-2017
C. 2050-5057
D. 5091-2098
Answer: D

Avaya   certification 7003.1   certification 7003.1   7003.1   7003.1 examen   certification 7003.1

NO.7 A customer has deployed a Communication Server 100 Rls. 7x system at their site. The technician has
been asked to add the Call pickup feature to the 100 IP telephone in the sales department.
The customer wants to be sure active calls not lost when the changes are made.
Which Phones Configuration feature can be enabled that will ensure changes to the telephone are not
transmitted to the call server until the telephone are busy.?
A. Bulk change
B. Courtesy change
C. Group change
D. Template change
Answer: B

Avaya examen   7003.1   7003.1   7003.1 examen

NO.8 A technician deployed a Communication Server 1000E with dual homing feature configured. Both the T
and 2T ports are connected on the media Gateway Controller (MGC) one connection is active to avoid
network loops.
Which two statements are true, if the connection to the active port on the MGC is host?
(Choose two)
A. The MGC will issue a link down error.
B. The MGC will switch to the active pert.
C. The MGC and CPPM will have no loss of service.
D. The MGC will switch to the active port after 12 seconds.
Answer: B,C

Avaya   7003.1   7003.1   certification 7003.1

NO.9 You are installing a new Communication Server 1000E (CS 1000E) SA release 7x system for your
customer. They have asked you to implement the corporate Directory Feature during the installation.
A. SFTP must be disabled in LD 117.
B. Valid telephony accounts must already exist in Subscriber Manager.
C. The CS 1000E Call Server must be joined to security domain.
D. Centralized authentication must be disabled.
Answer: C

certification Avaya   7003.1   certification 7003.1   7003.1   7003.1

NO.10 A customer with a Communication Server (CS) 1000E at Rls. 5.5 with two IPMG is upgrading the
system to CS 1000E SA release 7 x. The second media gateway includes a media Gateway Controller
card with one high density DSP daughter board.
How many voice channels does this configuration provide?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 96
D. 128
Answer: D

certification Avaya   certification 7003.1   7003.1 examen   7003.1

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Le meilleur matériel de formation examen Avaya 3102.1

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Code d'Examen: 3102.1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Aura® Session Manager and System Manager Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
Questions et réponses: 69 Q&As

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NO.1 Which URL should be used to access the web console to install a System Manager template?
A. https://135.0.0.5/webconsole
B. https://135.0.0.6/webconsole
C. https://135.0.0.7/SMGR
D. https://135.0.0.7/webconsole
Answer: C

Avaya   3102.1   3102.1   3102.1 examen   3102.1

NO.2 Company XYZ has a multi-location voice network. They have Session Manager at their main site and
Avaya Communication Manager (CM) and Cisco Call Manager at their branch locations.
Which type of messages does Session Manager send to the Avaya and Cisco PBX configured as SIP
Entities to monitor their status?
A. ENTITY
B. LINK
C. OPTIONS
D. STATUS
Answer: C

Avaya   certification 3102.1   3102.1 examen   3102.1 examen

NO.3 Review the output of the command shown in the exhibit.
Which command is used to generate these results and what does it tell you?
A. swversion displays the Session ManagerReleaseinformation.
B. statapp displays the current status of the Session Manager services.
C. initDRS displays the Session ManagerNoderegistration and data replication.
D. traceSM displays a ladder trace of the SIP requests going in and out of the Session Manager.
E. smconfig displays the network information and status the Session Manager.
Answer: E

Avaya examen   certification 3102.1   certification 3102.1   3102.1   3102.1

NO.4 During a post-installation check of System Manager and Session Manager you discover that the
Session lager replica node is stuck at "Synchronizing". You run the initTM command in Session Manager
but the replication status does not change.
Which step will be effective in resolving the problem?
A. Reset the enrollment password.
B. Run traceSM to monitor the synchronization events and restart the Security Module.
C. Delete the Session Manager Replica node in System Manager, verify the enrollment password is valid
In System Manager and run the initTM command again in Session Manager.
D. Verify the enrollment password is valid in System Manager and run the initTM command again in
Session Manager.
Answer: D

Avaya   certification 3102.1   3102.1   3102.1

NO.5 Digit Conversion in Adaptation can be specified to modify "origination" type headers.
Which three are origination / source type URIs? (Choose three.)
A. Request-URI
B. P-Asserted-Identity
C. Refer-To (in REFER messages)
D. History-info (calling portion)
E. Contact (in 3xx response)
Answer: B,D,E

certification Avaya   3102.1   3102.1   certification 3102.1

NO.6 When performing a remote backup of system Manager data the administrator is asked for a user name
and password.
Which statement best explains why a user name and password are required.?
A. The backed-up data file is encrypted. The username and password are used in encryption process and
subsequently to access the file on restoring backed up data.
B. The backed-up data is stored on a remote server using SCP. The user name and password are used to
login remote server.
C. Because System Manager Date is being exported from the server for security and authentication
purpose system Manager once again checks the administrator's credentials.
D. All System Manager Data is backed up to common storage repository setup during installation. For
system Manager to access the repository the correct user name and password must be
supplied.
Answer: B

Avaya   3102.1   3102.1   3102.1 examen   3102.1

NO.7 A new Application Sequence has already been defined in the network. A technician has been asked to
apply Application Sequence to all incoming calls for all employees in the Berlin office.
Which sequence describes the steps that should be taken?
A. Go to the User Management page and use the filter option to list only the users in the Berlin
office-Select each user from the filtered list and edit each user's User Profile. Apply the new Application
Sequence to the Terminating Application Sequence for each user.
B. Navigate to the Communication Profile Editor and use the filter option to list only the users in the Berlin
location. Select All. Select the new Application Sequence from the Terminating Application Sequence
drop down box.
C. Go to the list of Application Sequences and edit the new Application Sequence, adding the Berlin
location to the list of associated locations.
D. Edit the Berlin Location to include the new Application Sequence as its Terminating Application
Sequence.
Answer: B

Avaya examen   3102.1   3102.1 examen   certification 3102.1   3102.1

NO.8 Which three types of handles can be selected for a user when creating users in system manger?
(Choose three.)
A. SMTP
B. H.323
C. IBM
D. XMPP
E. undefined
Answer: A,C,D

Avaya   3102.1   3102.1

NO.9 After a power failure or database crash, the Postgres database may become corrupted and the
Postgres server may not restart.
The recovery action is to clear the writer-Ahead Log (WAL) and optionally reset other control data, using
which command?
A. pg_resetxlog
B. pg_clearwal
C. pg_dump
D. service postgresq1 restart
E. service wall restart
Answer: A

Avaya   certification 3102.1   certification 3102.1   3102.1 examen   3102.1

NO.10 Which statement is true with regard to SIP Monitoring being enabled on a SIP Entity?
A. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
B. SIP Entity will monitor the status of Session Manager by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
C. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP SUBSCRIBE requests.
D. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP NOTIFY requests.
E. System Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
Answer: A

Avaya   3102.1   3102.1 examen   3102.1 examen   certification 3102.1

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