2014年5月29日星期四

Dernières Magento M70-301 M70-101 M70-201 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: M70-301
Nom d'Examen: Magento (Magento Front End Developer Certification Exam)
Questions et réponses: 108 Q&As

Code d'Examen: M70-101
Nom d'Examen: Magento (Magento Certified Developer Exam)
Questions et réponses: 122 Q&As

Code d'Examen: M70-201
Nom d'Examen: Magento (Magento Certified Developer Plus Exam )
Questions et réponses: 131 Q&As

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NO.1 Applying the shopping cart rule's action affects the quote item by setting the quote item's
_______________.
A. base_price and price properties with the discounted price
B. base_discount_amount and discount_amount with the discount applied to the original price
C. base_row_total and cow_total properties with the discounted price
D. base_price_incl_tax and price_incl_tax properties with the discounted price
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which kind of class is responsible for calculating the actual amount of reward points in every case?
A. Reward model (Enterprise_Reward_Model_Reward)
B. Action model (derivatives from Entet:prise_Reward_Model_Action)
C. Event model (derivatives from Enterprise_Reward_Model_Event)
D. Calculation model (Enterprise_Reward_Model_Calculator)
Answer: B

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NO.3 With which three kinds of product relations do Magento Catalog Target Rules deal? (Choose three)
A. The relations between a configurable product and its child products
B. The relations between a bundle product and its child products
C. The relations among products linked as cross-sell products
D. The relations between a product and its custom options
E. The relations among products linked as related products
F. The relations among products linked as upsell products
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.4 Which three of the following object types will have a parent class found in the Mage_Eav module for the
purposes of EAV data storage in Magento? (Choose three)
A. Data model
B. Data helper
C. Resource model
D. Resource collection
E. Setup class
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.5 When setData (' some', 'value') is called on an EAV entity and the entity is saved to the database,
A. The 'value' of the attribute named 'some' is saved in the eav_values table
B. The 'value' of the attribute named ' some' is saved in one of the entity's tables depending on its
datatype (for example, entityname_varchar)
C. The data will be stored in the EAV registry making ' some' 'value' available to the entity
D. The 'value' of the attribute named T some' is saved in the eav attribute values table
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the difference in the effect of calling the invoice capture () method versus the invoice pay ()
method?
A. No difference: pay () will always call capture ().
B. Pay () will trigger the payment and capture!) will not.
C. Capture () will trigger the payment and pay () will not.
D. The difference is determined by the payment method implementation.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What type of Magento class is an API resource?
A. Controller
B. Helper
C. Model
D. Resource model
Answer: C

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NO.8 A custom frontend controller will extend which one of the following classes?
A. Mage_Core_Controller_Front_Action
B. Mage_Adminhtml_Controller_Action
C. Mage_Core_Controller_Varien_Front
D. Mage_Core_Controller_Abstract
Answer: A

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Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Manager [Syllabus 2012])
Questions et réponses: 64 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL_UK))
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 The following are the requirements identified as "critical":
REQ-SEL-001. The user shall be able to combine all the three products with all the four durations to
define an item to purchase
REQ-SEL-002. The user shall be able to add a maximum of six different items to the shopping cart
REQ-PUR-001. The user shall be able to purchase all the items in the shopping cart using a credit
voucher
REQ-PUR-002. The user shall be able to purchase all the items in the shopping cart using the
available credit already charged on the smartcard
REQ-PUR-003. The user shall be able to purchase all the items in the shopping cart using all the
accepted credit cards (Visa, MasterCard and Great Wall Card)
REG-LOGO-001. The user shall be able to logout (by clicking the logout button) from both the
"select" and "purchase" pages going back to the "browse" page (anonymous navigation)
Moreover the following quality risk item has been identified as "critical":
QR-P1. The web customer portal might not be able to provide the expected response time (less than
10 sec) for the purchase transactions under a load of up-to 1000 concurrent users
Test analysis for system testing has just begun and the following test conditions have been identifieD.
TC-SEL-01. Test the combinations of products and durations to define an item to purchase
TC-SEL-02. Test the maximum number of items, which can be added to the shopping cart
TC-PUR-01. Test the purchase of an item
TC-PUR-02. Test the purchase of an item with the credit charged on the smartcard
What is the MINIMUM number of test conditions that must be added to fulfill both the EXCR1 and
EXCR2 exit criteria?
K3 2 credits
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

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NO.2 You are the Test Manager for a project to develop a client-server application that allows wine
vendors to order custom-assorted packages of wines of several winemakers to sell special packages
in their wine shops.
You decide to apply a blended risk-based and reactive testing strategy. Below the exit criteria for the
system testinG. EXCR1- Each "critical" quality risk item must be covered by at least one test
condition EXCR2- Each "critical" requirement must be covered by at least one test condition
The following are the "critical" requirements of the application:
REQ-SEL-1. The application shall allow the user to order only one package at a time
REQ-SEL-2. The application shall allow the user to select between four different packages (2bottles,
6-bottles, 12-bottles, 15-bottles)
REQ-SEL-3. The application shall allow the user to order a package containing at least 1 bottle and
no more bottles than the package size. No error messages shall be displayed if the user selects a
valid number of bottles (at least 1 bottle and no more than the package size)
REQ-SEL-4. The application shall display an error message "Invalid number of bottles" if an invalid
number of bottles is selected by the user (zero bottles or a number higher than the package size)
REQ-PAY-1. The application shall allow the user to pay with the three accepted credit cards (Visa,
MasterCard, American Express)
REQ-PAY-2. The application shall display an error message "Invalid credit card" if invalid credit card
data are given by the user
QUSTION NO: 11 The following is the unique "critical" quality risk item that has been identified:
CR-RSK-1. The GUI of the application might accept non-integer values for the input field designed
to get the number of bottles from the user
Test analysis for system testing has just begun and the following test conditions have been identifieD.
TC-SEL-2. Test the selection of the package sizes
TC-SEL-4. Test wrong numbers of bottles for an order TC-CR-RSK-1. Test the accepted values from
the input field designed to get the number of bottles from the user
Assume that you have used traceability to determine the logical test cases that cover all the
requirements and the single risk item identified in that scenario.
Which of the following is a positive logical test that is complete and correct, and covers the
REQSEL-4 requirement?
K3 2 credits
A. Select a 6-bottles package, then try to insert 5 bottles; verify that no error messages are
displayed
B. Select a 6-bottles package, then try to insert 7 bottles; verify that no error messages are displayed
C. Select a 6-bottles package, then try to insert 7 bottles; verify that the "Invalid number of bottles"
message is displayed
D. Select a 6-bottles package, then try to insert 7 bottles
Answer: C

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NO.3 Consider an information system of a Pay-Tv company based on a SOA architecture.
The integrated system currently consists of three core systems:
-a CRM (Customer Relationship Management) system
-a BRM (Billing and Revenue Management) system
-a CAS (Conditional Access System) system all of them communicating with SOA Middleware.
You have been asked to manage the testing activities for the integration of two additional
off-theshelf systems from two different vendors: a SMS (Short Message Service) server and an IVR
(Interactive Voice Response) system.
Assume that there is a high likelihood that the two off-the-shelf systems will be low-quality and that
you have a clear proof that the testing performed by the two vendors on their systems has been
unsystematic and unprofessional. This obviously leads to higher quality risk for the overall
integrated system.
You are the Test Manager of this project. Your main goal is to plan for testing activities to mitigate
this risk.
Which of the following answers best describes the test activities (assuming it is possible to perform
all of them) you should plan for?
K4 3 credits
A. You should plan for an informal and minimal acceptance test of the two off-the-shelf systems and
then a single end-to-end test of the overall integrated system
B. You should directly plan for a single end-to-end test focused on end-to-end tests of the overall
integrated system without an acceptance test of the two off-the-shelf systems
C. You should plan for two levels: a system integration test and an end-to-end test of the overall
integrated system
D. You should plan for adequate re-testing of both the systems followed by a system integration test
and an end-to-end test of the overall integrated system
Answer: D

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NO.4 The following are the exit criteria described in the test plan of a software product:
EX1. The test suite for the product must ensure that at least each quality risk item is covered by at
least one test case (a quality risk item can be covered by more test cases).
EX2. All test cases in the test suite must be run during the execution phase.
EX3. Defects are classified into two categories: "C" (critical defect) and "NC" (non-critical defect). No
known C defects shall exist in the product at the end of the test execution phase.
Which of the following information is useless when the specified exit criteria is evaluated?
K2 1 credit
A. A traceability matrix showing the relationships between the product risk items and the test cases
B. A list of all the open defects with the associated classification information extracted from the
defect tracking system
C. A chart, showing the trend in the lag time from defect reporting to resolution, extracted from the
defect tracking system
D. The execution status of all the test cases extracted from the test management tool
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is an example of the test closure activity indicated as "lessons learned"?
K2 1 credit
A. Archive all the test results of the acceptance testing phase
B. Deliver a list of the open defects of a software product released into production to the service
desk team
C. Participate in a meeting at the end of a project aimed at better managing the events and
problems of future projects
D. Deliver an automated regression test suite, used during the system test phase of a software
product released into production, to the team responsible for maintenance testing
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are the Test Manager for a project to develop a client-server application that allows wine
vendors to order custom-assorted packages of wines of several winemakers to sell special packages
in their wine shops.
You decide to apply a blended risk-based and reactive testing strategy. Below the exit criteria for the
system testinG.
EXCR1- Each "critical" quality risk item must be covered by at least one test condition
EXCR2- Each "critical" requirement must be covered by at least one test condition
The following are the "critical" requirements of the application:
REQ-SEL-1. The application shall allow the user to order only one package at a time
REQ-SEL-2. The application shall allow the user to select between four different packages (2bottles,
6-bottles, 12-bottles, 15-bottles)
REQ-SEL-3. The application shall allow the user to order a package containing at least 1 bottle and
no more bottles than the package size. No error messages shall be displayed if the user selects a
valid number of bottles (at least 1 bottle and no more than the package size)
REQ-SEL-4. The application shall display an error message "Invalid number of bottles" if an invalid
number of bottles is selected by the user (zero bottles or a number higher than the package size)
REQ-PAY-1. The application shall allow the user to pay with the three accepted credit cards (Visa,
MasterCard, American Express)
REQ-PAY-2. The application shall display an error message "Invalid credit card" if invalid credit card
data are given by the user
The following is the unique "critical" quality risk item that has been identified:
CR-RSK-1. The GUI of the application might accept non-integer values for the input field designed to
get the number of bottles from the user Test analysis for system testing has just begun and the
following test conditions have been identified.
TC-SEL-2. Test the selection of the package sizes
TC-SEL-4. Test wrong numbers of bottles for an order
TC-CR-RSK-1. Test the accepted values from the input field designed to get the number of bottles
from the user
What is the MINIMUM number of test conditions that must be added to fulfill both the EXCR1 and
EXCR2 exit criteria?
K3 2 credits
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: A

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NO.7 Assume you are the Test Manager for a new software release of an e-commerce application.
The server farm consists of six servers providing different capabilities. Each capability is provided
through a set of web services.
The requirements specification document contains several SLAs
(Service Level Agreements) like the following:
SLA-001: 99.5 percent of all transactions shall have a response time less than five seconds under a
load of up-to 5000 concurrent users
The main objective is to assure that all the SLAs specified in the requirements specification
document will be met before system release. You decide to apply a risk-based testing strategy and
an early risk analysis confirms that performance is high risk. You can count on a well-written
requirements specification and on a model of the system behavior under various load levels
produced by the system architect.
Which of the following test activities would you expect to be the less important ones to achieve the
test objectives in this scenario?
K4 3 credits
A. Perform unit performance testing for each single web service
B. Monitor the SLAs after the system has been released into the production environment
C. Perform system performance testing, consisting of several performance testing sessions, to verify
if all the SLAs have been met
D. Perform static performance testing by reviewing the architectural model of the system under
various load levels
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following statements describing the consequences of specifying test conditions
at a detailed level is NOT true?
K2 1 credit
A. In an environment where the test basis is continuously changing, it is recommended to specify
test conditions at a detailed level in order to achieve a better maintainability
B. The specification of test conditions at a detailed level can be effective when no formal
requirements or other development work products are available
C. The specification of test conditions at a detailed level can require the implementation of an
adequate level of formality across the team
D. For system testing, the specification of test conditions at a detailed level, carried out early in the
project as soon as the test basis is established, can contribute to defect prevention
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the Continued Business Justification?
A. The justification for the project must remain the same throughout the project
B. The justification for the project should remain valid
C. The justification for the project may change
D. If the project is no longer justified it should be stopped
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which statement best explains the purpose of Tailor to suit the project environment?
A. Ensure project controls are based on project's scale, complexity, importance, capability and risk
B. To use a set of pre-defined templates for the size of project
C. To tailor the use of the principles to suit the project
D. To pick which PRINCE2 processes to apply and which to leave out
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following principles uses Product Descriptions to provide clarity by defining each
product's purpose, composition, derivation, format, quality criteria and quality method?
A. Tailor to suit the project environment
B. Focus on products
C. Manage by stages
D. Continued business justification
Answer: B

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NO.4 The Manage by Exception principle sets tolerances for six areas of the project, Time. Cost and
Quality are three of them, what are the other three?
A. Scope, People & Resources, Benefit
B. Scope, Risk, Product
C. Risk, Benefit, Product
D. Scope, Risk, Benefit
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following should NOT be included in the business case?
A. Reasons
B. Major Risks
C. Business options
D. Business approach
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following statements describes an outcome?
A. Any of the projects specialist products
B. A result of the change derived from using the project's products
C. A measurable improvement resulting from a change
D. Something perceived as advantages by a stakeholder
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
The Learn from Experience principle suggests that lessons should be actively sought...
A. When Starting a Project
B. When Initiating a Project
C. As the project progresses
D. As the project closes
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following principles describes this statement?" xxx defines tolerances for each
project objective to establish limits of delegated authority"
A. Manage by stages
B. Focus on products
C. Manage by exception
D. Learn from experience
Answer: C

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Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Cloud Architecture Lab)
Questions et réponses: 15 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Fundamental SOA Security)
Questions et réponses: 98 Q&As

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NO.1 Cloud Service A requires access to Cloud Storage Device A, which contains LUNs A and B.
Cloud Service A is hosted by Virtual Server A, which resides on Hypervisor A on Physical Server A.
Virtual Server B hosts Cloud Service B and Cloud Service C.
Cloud Service Consumer A accesses Cloud Service A (1), which then accesses LUN A or B on Cloud
Storage Device A (2). After receiving the requested data from Cloud Service A, Cloud Service
Consumer A forwards the data to Cloud Service B (3), which then writes it to Cloud Storage Device B
(4).
Cloud Service Consumer A belongs to Organization A.
Organization A uses LUN A and LUN B on Cloud Storage Device A to store their important client
account data. Cloud Storage Device A is a low-performance cloud storage device, which begins to
cause performance issues as more data is added to LUNs A and B and as Cloud Service Consumer A
performs data access requests more frequently. Organization A asks that its cloud architecture be
upgraded to process increased quantities of data and higher volumes of data requests.
Organization A has been leasing a PaaS environment that it used to build Cloud Service A, which it
would like to make available to the general public. Organization A needs to establish a system
capable of monitoring usage of Cloud Service A for billing purposes.
The cloud provider is using a usage data collection and reporting system that gathers information on
Organization A's hosted IT resources approximately ten hours after the time of usage. One day,
Organization A attempts to retrieve information on whether Virtual Server B has available Cloud
Service C instances. They discover that they are unable to obtain the current status of Virtual Server
B.
Organization A demands a system that provides instant availability reporting.
Which of the following statements lists the patterns that can be applied to solve these three
requirements and problems?
Which of the following statements lists the patterns that can be applied to solve these three
requirements and problems?
A. Cross-Storage Device Vertical Tiering, Pay-as-You-Go. Self-Provisioning
B. Service Load Balancing, Pay-as-You-Go, Multipath Resource Access
C. Intra-Storage Device Vertical Data Tiering, Usage Monitoring, Centralized Remote Administration
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Cloud Storage Device A contains LUN A and can be accessed by external cloud consumers via a
proprietary user portal that is used primarily by cloud consumers to upload and manage data for
backup purposes. Pay-Per-Use Monitor A tracks the amount of data being uploaded and forwards
this information to a billing management system. Cloud Storage Device B is a secondary cloud
storage device. Data from Cloud Storage Device A is replicated synchronously to Cloud Storage
Device B using a storage replication program (not shown). Cloud Storage Device A is further
administered by a cloud resource administrator that works for the cloud provider, who accesses the
cloud storage device via an internal usage and administration portal.
Three different cloud consumers (Sarah. William, Matilda) access Cloud Storage Device A to upload
data for backup purposes (1). These three cloud consumers belong to different
departments within the same organization, and therefore all three share LUN A.
Pay-Per-Use Monitor A collects the storage space data and forwards it to the billing management
system (2).
The cloud provider offers premium and discount storage plans. With the premium plan, the data
stored on Cloud Storage Device A is also replicated to Cloud Storage Device B.
With the discount plan, the data stored on Cloud Storage Device A is not replicated. Both plans are
based on fixed-disk storage allocation. The cost of the premium plan is $5 per week for every GB of
storage space and the cost of the discount plan is $2 per week for every GB of storage space. The
SLA from the cloud provider guarantees availability of 97% for access to Cloud Storage Device A.
The three cloud consumers use Cloud Storage Device A as follows:
-Sara signs up for the discount backup plan and is allocated 50 GBs of storage space. A week later,
she uploads 10 GBs of backup data. A week after that, she uploads another 35 GBs. She later finds
out that for those two weeks her organization was billed $200, which is more than she was
expecting. After she complains to the cloud provider, she learns about how fixed-disk storage
allocation is billed. She asks the cloud provider to change her account to a different
storage plan where she is only billed for the actual amount of storage space she uses at any
given time. The cloud provider assures her that a new system will be set up to accommodate
this request.
-William is on the premium backup plan. He uploads 1 to 3 GBs of important business data every
day. After two weeks of daily uploads, he realizes that the centralized nature of the backup data on
the cloud makes it more convenient for reporting purposes than the distributed nature of the same
data in his on-premise environment. He uses an analysis tool to run queries against the cloud-based
data. However, due to the large quantity of redundant data, the queries end up being ineffective
and take too long to run. He asks the cloud provider to find a solution that can streamline the
cloud-based data by reducing redundancy. By reducing the overall quantity of the data, the analysis
queries will run faster.
-Matilda is on the discount backup plan and uploads backup data on a daily basis. Over the course
of two weeks she uploads over 200 GBs of data. She performs a daily backup at the end of each day
by identifying the data to back up and then using the proprietary user portal to run the cloud
backup procedure. This procedure can take 5 to 45 minutes, depending on the amount of data she
is uploading. Matilda performs this as her last task of the day and therefore initiates the procedure
before she leaves, but does not wait for it to complete. One day, she receives an e-mail from the
cloud provider explaining that the backup procedure from the previous day had failed due to an
unexpected hardware failure that occurred on Cloud Storage Device A.
The notification e-mail goes on to state that this type of failure falls within the 97% availability
guarantee of her organization's SLA, and is therefore in compliance with the current provisioning
agreement. Had a disaster occurred that night, the on-premise data could have been lost and
Matilda would be held accountable. Matilda contacts the cloud provider to demand that the
provisioning agreement be amended to upgrade their existing SLA to the maximum possible
availability (which, for this cloud provider, is 99.999%). The cloud provider agrees to establish a
system to accommodate this request.
Which of the following statements lists the patterns that can be applied to address the three issues
raised by the three cloud consumers?
A. Storage Workload Management, Elastic Disk Provisioning, Centralized Remote Administration
B. Elastic Disk Provisioning, Dynamic Data Normalization, Zero Downtime
C. Storage Maintenance Window, Dynamic Failure Detection and Recovery, Broad Access
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Cloud Service A is hosted by Virtual Server A, which is hosted by Hypervisor A that resides on
Physical Server A.
Cloud Storage Device A is used to store media library data that is continuously replicated with a
redundant, secondary implementation of Cloud Storage A (not shown). Access to Cloud Service A is
monitored by Pay-Per-Use Monitor A.
Access to Cloud Storage Device A is monitored by Pay-Per-Use Monitor B.
Pay-Per-Use Monitors A and B capture billing-related usage data that is forwarded to a billing
management system that is hosted by Physical Server B.
Cloud Service Consumer A accesses Cloud Service A and the usage data is captured by Pay-Per-Use
Monitor A (1). Cloud Consumer B accesses Cloud Storage Device A via a usage and administration
portal that it uses to upload media data (2). This usage is captured by Pay-Per-Use Monitor B (3).
Pay-Per-Use Monitors A and B store collected usage data in the billing management system (4),
which is later used by the cloud provider to bill for the usage of Cloud Service A and Cloud Storage
Device A.
Each service instance of Cloud Service A requires a virtual server with 2 virtual CPUs and 4 GBs of
RAM at a package price of $2.00 for each initial invocation and an additional $0.50 for each
consecutive 60 seconds of usage. Cloud Service Consumer A accesses Cloud Service A twice in one
day. The two exchanges with Cloud Service A last 60 seconds and 120 seconds. For that one day, the
organization that owns Cloud Service Consumer A is billed $6.50, which it determines is incorrect.
After complaining to the cloud provider, it is discovered that the rapid provisioning system
responsible for provisioning instances of Cloud Service A is not de-provisioning Cloud Service A
when Cloud Service Consumer A indicates it has completed an exchange. Instead, Cloud Service A is
de-provisioned after a 60 second timeout that occurs after Cloud Service Consumer A is completed
with an exchange.
Storage space on Cloud Storage Device A can only be purchased in units of terabytes (TBs), with
each TB costing $1 per day. Cloud Consumer B purchases 5 TBs of storage space on day 1 and stores
5 TBs of data on days 6 and 7. Cloud Consumer B was expecting to be billed $10.00, but is billed $35.
After raising a complaint, Cloud Consumer B is informed by the cloud provider that cloud consumers
are billed based on the allocation of storage space, regardless of how much storage space they
actually use.
Which of the following statements describes a solution that can update the cloud architecture to
avoid these billing-related problems and discrepancies?
A. The Pay-as-You-Go pattern can be applied together with the Usage Monitoring pattern to
establish a monitoring and billing system capable of de-provisioning Cloud Service A instances when
they are no longer required. The Dynamic Data Normalization pattern can be applied to eliminate
any redundant data stored by Cloud Consumer A so that the amount of required storage space is
minimized.
B. The Platform Provisioning pattern can be applied to create an intelligent automation script
capable of immediately de-provisioning cloud service instances. The Redundant Storage pattern can
be applied to introduce a secondary cloud storage device for which storage space can be billed
based on actual usage.
C. The Self-Provisioning pattern can be applied to enable the organization that owns Cloud Service
Consumer B to configure how and to what extent Cloud Service A instances need to be provisioned.
The Resource Management pattern can be applied to establish a storage system that bills cloud
consumers for actual storage space usage only.
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Cloud Sen/ice A is hosted by Virtual Server A, which is hosted by Hypervisor A on Physical
Server
A. Cloud Service B is hosted by Virtual Server B.
Virtual Server C hosts Cloud Services C and D.
Virtual Server B and Virtual Server C are hosted by Hypervisor B on Physical Server B.
Cloud Service Consumer A accesses Cloud Service A (1). Cloud Service Consumer B accesses Cloud
Service A (2). Cloud Service Consumer C accesses Cloud Service A (3) and then accesses Cloud
Service B (4).
Cloud Service Consumers A, B and C simultaneously access Cloud Service A.
Cloud Service Consumer C receives a runtime exception and its request for access is rejected. It is
determined that Cloud Service Consumer C attempted to upload a large amount of input data for
Cloud Service A, which exceeded the bandwidth threshold of the virtual network. The cloud
architecture needs to be improved to avoid this from happening again.
Cloud Service Consumer C's repeated access of Cloud Service B imposes workloads that are large
and highly unpredictable. After some time, Cloud Service B begins to delay its responses and
sometimes times out entirely. The cloud resource administrator discovers that Virtual Server B is
unstable and close to failure primarily because its CPU and memory resources are being used to
their maximum capacity.
Cloud Services C and D are being positioned as SaaS products for use by a range of cloud consumer
organizations. After their initial release, they begin to quickly use up the available memory in Virtual
Server C, primarily because of the large amounts of state and session data they need to place into
memory for extended periods.
Which of the following statements lists the patterns that can be applied to solve these three
requirements and problems?
A. Elastic Network Capacity, Load Balanced Virtual Server Instances, Service State Management
B. Elastic Resource Capacity, Service Load Balancing, Synchronized Operating State
C. Persistent Virtual Network Configuration. Load Balanced Virtual Switches, Service State
Management
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Ready-Made Environment A is hosted by Virtual Server A and Ready-Made Environments is
hosted by Virtual Server B.
Virtual Servers A and B are hosted by Hypervisor A, which is part of a hypervisor cluster. An
automated scaling listener intercepts cloud consumer requests and automatically invokes the
on-demand generation of additional instances of ready-made environments, as required.
A self-service portal and a usage and administration portal are also available to cloud consumers.
The self-service portal can be used to request the provisioning of a new ready-made environment.
Any cloud consumer that has already had a ready-made environment provisioned can configure and
view information about that ready-made environment via the usage and administration portal.
Cloud Consumer A accesses Ready-Made Environment A to work on the development of a new
cloud service (1). Cloud Consumer B accesses Ready-Made Environment B to test a recently
completed application comprised of three cloud services (2). Cloud Consumer C accesses the
self-service portal to request the creation of a new ready-made environment (3).
The cloud provider is required to perform an emergency maintenance outage on a cloud storage
device used by all ready-made environments. The unplanned outage takes two hours. During this
period, Cloud Consumers A and B are unable to access Ready-Made Environments A and B and
Cloud Consumer C receives an error when submitting a request to create a new ready-made
environment.
After the maintenance outage is over, Cloud Consumers A and B encounter the following problems:
-Cloud Consumer A is unable to recover session data that was kept in memory for an extended
period, prior to the time of the outage. -Cloud Consumer B has no access to Virtual Server B, which
was moved to Hypervisor B during
the maintenance outage. When Cloud Consumer B attempts to ping Virtual Server B, the
request times out.
Even though Cloud Consumer C is able to log into the usage and administration portal to confirm
that its ready-made environment was successfully provisioned, the unexpected outage has raised
concerns about the stability of the ready-made environment's underlying infrastructure. Cloud
Consumer C informs the cloud provider that it cannot proceed with its lease of the ready-made
environment if there are future occurrences of this type of maintenance outage.
Which of the following statements can help address the problems and concerns of the three cloud
consumers?
A. A combination of the Load Balanced Virtual Server Instances and Synchronized Operating State
patterns can be applied to establish a system capable of deferring state across multiple cloud
storage devices, each located on a different virtual server. The Elastic Disk Provisioning pattern can
be applied to persist virtual server configuration data across hypervisors so that connectivity is
preserved whenever a virtual server is relocated to a different hypervisor. The Zero Downtime
pattern can be applied to ensure that none of the ready-made environments or virtual servers are
subject to a maintenance outage in the future.
B. The Elastic Disk Provisioning and Cross-Storage Device Vertical Tiering patterns can be applied to
establish a cloud architecture that supports a set of cloud storage devices, each with different tiers
that cloud consumers can choose to scale to The Synchronized Operating State pattern can be
applied in combination with the Hypervisor Clustering pattern to avoid further virtual server and
ready-made environment connectivity problems. The Redundant Storage pattern can be applied so
that if a cloud storage device fails, a secondary implementation of the cloud storage device
automatically takes over processing tasks, thereby avoiding outages.
C. The Service State Management pattern can be appliedto establish a system that canpersist
session data in a database. The Persistent Virtual Network Configuration pattern can be applied to
centralize the configuration data necessary for virtual servers to remain accessible after they have
been relocated to different hypervisors. The Storage Maintenance Window pattern can be applied
to establish a system that allows cloud storage devices to be maintained without causing outages.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: HIO-201
Nom d'Examen: HIPAA (Certified HIPAA Professional)
Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HIO-301
Nom d'Examen: HIPAA (Certified HIPAA Security)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 The Privacy Rule's penalties for unauthorized disclosure:
A. Imposes fines and imprisonment as civil penalties for violations.
B. Limits penalties to covered entities and their business associates.
C. Imposes criminal penalties for noncompliance with standards.
D. Limits imprisonment to a maximum often years.
E. Is $1000 per event of disclosure.
Answer: D

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NO.2 The Privacy Rule gives patients the following right
A. Access to the psychotherapy notes.
B. Request an amendment to their medical record.
C. Receive a digital certificate.
D. See an accounting of disclosures for which authorization was given.
E. The use of a smart card for accessing their records.
Answer: B

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NO.3 ABC Hospital implements policies and procedures to ensure that all members of
its workforce have appropriate access to electronic protected health information.
These policies and procedures satisfy which HIPAA security standard?
A. Security Management Process
B. Facility Access Control
C. Security Awareness and Training
D. Workforce Security
E. B Security Management Process
Answer: D

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NO.4 This final security rule standard addresses encryption of data,
A. Security Management Process
B. Device and Media Controls
C. Information Access Management
D. Audit Controls
E. Transmission Security
Answer: E

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NO.5 An Electronic Medical Record (EMR):
A. Is another name for the Security Ruling
B. Requires the use of biometrics for access to records.
C. Is electronically stored information about an individual's health status and health care.
D. Identifies all hospitals and health care organizations.
E. Requires a P1<1 for the provider and the patient.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Ensuring that physical access to electronic information systems and the facilities in which they
are housed is limited, is addressed under which security rule standard?
A. Security Management Process
B. Transmission Security
C. Person or Entity Authentication
D. Facility Access Controls
E. information Access Management
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which transaction covers information specific to accidents?
A. Accident Report.
B. First Report of Injury.
C. Health Care Claim.
D. Health Care Claim Payment/Advice.
E. Premium Payment.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Select the correct statement regarding the 834 -Benefit Enrollment and Maintenance
transaction.
A. It can not be used to transfer enrollment information from a plan sponsor to a health care
insurance company or other benefit provider.
B. It can be used by a health insurance company to notify a plan sponsor that it has dropped one of
its members.
C. It can not be used to enroll, update, or dis-enroll employees and dependents in a health plan.
D. A sponsor can be an employer, insurance agency, association or government agency but unions
are excluded from being plan sponsors
E. It can be used in either update or full replacement mode.
Answer: E

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Code d'Examen: GSSP-NET-CSHARP
Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Secure Software Programmer - C#.NET)
Questions et réponses: 550 Q&As

Code d'Examen: GSEC
Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Security Essentials Certification)
Questions et réponses: 280 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following frequencies are used by wireless standard 802.11n to operate? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. 1 Ghz
B. 2 Ghz
C. 2.4 Ghz
D. 5 Ghz
Answer: C, D

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NO.2 What is the maximum cable segment length supported by a 10BaseT network?
A. 100 meters
B. 300 meters
C. 250 meters
D. 500 meters
E. 150 meters
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following is a security threat if included in the search path of a computer?
A. /usr
B. /sbin
C. .
D. /usr/bin
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following protocols multicasts messages and information among all member devices in
an IP multicast group?
A. IGMP
B. TCP
C. ARP
D. ICMP
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following terms describes software technologies that improve portability, manageability
and compatibility of applications by encapsulating them from the underlying operating system on which
they are executed?
A. Application virtualization
B. Encapsulation
C. System hardening
D. Failover
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following statements about the availability concept of Information security management is
true?
A. It ensures reliable and timely access to resources.
B. It determines actions and behaviors of a single individual within a system.
C. It ensures that unauthorized modifications are not made to data by authorized personnel or processes.
D. It ensures that modifications are not made to data by unauthorized personnel or processes.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following statements regarding Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) are true? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. SSL provides message integrity to prevent alteration to the message.
B. During SSL session, information is encrypted to prevent unauthorized disclosure.
C. SSL can process credit cards.
D. SSL can support 128-bit encryption.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.8 Which of the following is NOT the feature of SELinux in the Red Hat enterprise Linux?
A. SELinux does not provide Kernel-level security.
B. All process and files have a context.
C. SELinux implements Mandatory Access Control (MAC) security in Red Hat Enterprise Linux.
D. SELinux applies to all users, including root.
Answer: A

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HP meilleur examen HP2-Z12 HP2-Z30 HP0-311, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: HP2-Z12
Nom d'Examen: HP (Servicing HP Networking Products)
Questions et réponses: 94 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP2-Z30
Nom d'Examen: HP (Fast Track - Applying HP FlexNetwork Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-311
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP OpenView TeMIP)
Questions et réponses: 56 Q&As

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NO.1 How can you check the status of the ports that are providing Power over Ethernet (PoE) on an HP
E2610-PWR switch?
A. Use the Mode button to selectPoE and then view the port Link and Mode LEDs
B. Use the Port Locator button to selectPoE and then view the port Status and Link LEDs.
C. View the portPoE LED.
D. Use the switch'sPoE LED and the PoE LED for each port.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which HP E Switch Series is specifically designed to be deployed in a data center?
A. E4200vl
B. E6200yl
C. E6600
D. E8200zl
Answer: C

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NO.3 The exhibit shows the Power and seven-segment LEDs of an HP A Series switch. What is the switch's
status?
Exhibit:
A. The switch has member ID 8 in the cluster.
B. The switch has member ID 8 in the cluster, but its attempt to join the cluster has failed.
C. The switch has failed the power on self test (POST) with ID 8.
D. Port number 8 has failed the switch's power on self test (POST).
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are installing an HP A Series switch that requires a backup power supply as well as extra power for
Power over Ethernet (PoE) devices. Which device should you connect to this switch?
A. RPS 1200 A
B. RPS 1000 A3
C. RPS 800 A
D. RPS500 A3
Answer: B

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NO.5 You log in to an HP A Series switch over a console session in order to establish IP connectivity
between the switch and the rest of the network. What is the minimum user privilege level needed to
complete this task?
A. Operator
B. Monitor
C. System
D. Manage
Answer: C

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NO.6 A faulty configuration on an HP A Series switch locked a customer out of the management interface.
You bypass the configuration and gain access to the switch's CLI.Your manager asks
you to send her the configuration to examine.
What must you do?
A. Establish IP connectivity between the switch and a BackUp the Startup-Config to a TFTP Server server
and issue the backup command
B. Use the copy command to copy the configuration to your management station.
C. Establish IP connectivity between the switch and your management station and use the save
command to save the configuration.
D. Use the saved-configuration command to select the startup-config and save it out to your management
station.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Several HP A Series switches are distinguished by a dual-personality (or combo) port. What is an
accurate description of this port?
A. It can accept either Ethernet Base-T cable or fiber optic cable
B. It can accept either Ethernet Base-T cable or a small form-factor pluggable (SFP) transceiver
C. It is a pair of ports. One accepts Ethernet Base-T cable and one accepts a small form-factor pluggable
(SFP) transceiver. Both can be used simultaneously.
D. It is a pair of ports. One accepts Ethernet Base-T cable and one accepts a small form-factor pluggable
(SFP) transceiver. Only one can be used at a time.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which area of the network is considered the backbone?
A. data center
B. core
C. distribution layer
D. LAN access layer
Answer: B

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HP meilleur examen HP0-S19 HP2-B25 HP0-714, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: HP0-S19
Nom d'Examen: HP (Integrating and Managing HP ProLiant ML/DL in the Enterprise)
Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP2-B25
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP LaserJet Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 98 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-714
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP OpenView Storage Area Manager Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 115 Q&As

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
Performance Management Pack (PMP) provides tools to assist in monitoring server performance. Which
tool is shown in the exhibit?
A. Offline Analysis
B. Online Analysis
C. Static Analysis Report
D. CSV File Generator
Answer: D

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NO.2 Why would you use the HP ProLiant Essentials Virtual Machine Management Pack if you already
manage your virtual machines with another product such as VMware VirtualCenter? (Select three.)
A. It uses fewer resources on the Central Management Server.
B. It ties into VirtualCenter and allows for actions based on predictive failures.
C. It ties directly into HP SIM to provide a single management view.
D. It manages VMs from MS, Citrix and VMware.E. It is available at no cost.
Answer: BCD

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NO.3 When installing HP Insight Integration for OpenView NNM, which primary processes are installed?
(Select two.)
A. CPQWEB
B. CPQDIS
C. CPQTRAPD
D. CPQMAP
E. CPQRILOE
Answer: BD

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NO.4 Which hardware support services are offered by HP Care Packs? (Select two.)
A. Critical Service
B. 8-hour Call-to-Repair
C. 6-hour Same Business Day
D. Next Business Day
E. Return Service
Answer: DE

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NO.5 A remote branch office has a DL580 G5 Server reporting a memory error on the Windows system
event log. The server has four 1GB memory DIMMs. What is the quickest way to tell which specific
memory module has failed?
A. Open up the server and replace the memory modules one by one.
B. Run the online HP Insight Diagnostic Utility.
C. Check the Systems Insight Display.
D. Run the Array Diagnostic Utility (ADU).
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are planning to use the HP Essentials Server Migration Pack to execute a Virtual-to-Virtual (V2V)
migration from one virtual machine host server to a new virtual machine host. HP SIM displays
the following status icons in the VM column for each machine:
Which action must be taken to allow the migration to proceed?
A. Install the VMM Agent on the source virtual machine host server.
B. Apply the VMM Pack license to the target virtual machine host server.
C. Install the VMM Agent on the target virtual machine host server.
D. Apply the VMM Pack license to the source virtual machine host server.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer wants to purchase an MSA storage solution that meets the following requirements:
Provides end-to-end SAS host modular flexible platform in a high capacity 2U disk drive external direct
storage system
Uses both Small Form Factor (SFF) SAS and SATA disk drives
Supports cascading to a second MSA for future expansion
Hot plug compatibility
RAID 6 with ADG
Supports dual port SAS drives
Which solutions would you recommend? (Select two.)
A. MSA20
B. MSA30
C. MSA50
D. MSA60
E. MSA70
Answer: DE

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NO.8 What should you consider when planning for cluster (active/active) failover?
A. capacity of shared storage
B. failover resource requirements on the surviving node
C. data transfer speed of shared storage
D. data integrity between both nodes
E. heartbeat communications speed between nodes
Answer: B

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Le plus récent matériel de formation examen HP HP0-Y40 HP2-H12 HP3-023 de certification

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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y40
Nom d'Examen: HP (network infrastruclure security)
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP2-H12
Nom d'Examen: HP (Designing and Implementing HP Thin Client Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP3-023
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Color Laserjet 2820-2840 Aio Datasheet)
Questions et réponses: 30 Q&As

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NO.1 Which models belong to the Flexible product line in HP thin client portfolio (Select two)
A. 6720t
B. t5730
C. t5145
D. t5630
E. t5540
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 What is the role of a connection broker?
A. provides encryption between client and resources
B. determines resource type allocation based on user identity
C. manages golden images and their distribution to compute resources
D. provides a connection between the server and the computer resources
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) solutions are recognized by HP (Select two)
A. HP Blade PC
B. VmWare View
C. Citrix XenApp
D. HP Image Manager
E. Citrix XenDesktop
Answer: B,E

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NO.4 Your customer requires the lowest-cost thin client solution with only basic connectivity, integrated
connection brokers, no browser or terminal emulation support, and the most essential peripheral support.
Which thin client operating system should you recommend?
A. HP ThinPro
B. HP ThinConnect
C. MS Windows XPe
D. MS Windows CE
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which operation system of HP thin clients fully implements the features of the HP Session Allocation
Manager (SAM) broker?
A. HP ThinConnect
B. MS Windows CE
C. MS Windows XPe
D. MS Windows Vista
Answer: C

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NO.6 What are the characteristics of a Knowledge Worker user group (Select two)
A. richer graphical applications
B. many simultaneous user logins
C. multiple display support requirements
D. multiple business or productivity applications open simultaneously
E. fewer application types
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 Which HP Remote Client Solution is best for a task-oriented user?
A. HP Blade Workstation
B. Server Based Computing
C. HP Virtual Desktop Infrastructure
D. Hp Blade PC
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which protocols does HP support to access HP blade workstations remotely (Select two).?
A. ICA
B. VNC
C. RDC
D. RGS
E. RDP
Answer: D,E

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Code d'Examen: HP0-A24
Nom d'Examen: HP (NonStop Data Communication Basics)
Questions et réponses: 73 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP2-E45
Nom d'Examen: HP (Technical Introduction to the HP SMB Portfolio)
Questions et réponses: 73 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two IT priorities are typically the most important for SMB customers? (Select two.)
A. business continuity
B. cloud services
C. failover capability
D. security
E. redundancy
Answer: B,D

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Reference:http://www.netstandard.com/top-smb-it-priorities-for-2012-cloud-security-and-mobileso
lutions/(4thand5thparagraph)

NO.2 Which factor is typically the most important for SMBs when considering a technology
purchase?
A. scalability
B. mobility
C. reliability
D. database management
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are analyzing a customer's system in order to determine its hardware availability
requirements. Which attributes of the system should you consider? (Select two)
A. repair response time
B. the need for multiprocessing
C. processor speed
D. length of the average transaction
E. reliability
Answer: B,E

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NO.4 HP provides simple, affordable, and reliable ways for SMB customers to build and run their
business. What is an example of this strategy?
A. The HP SMB Servers program provides SMBs with scalable storage, data protection, and disaster
recovery solutions that suit a wide range of needs
B. ProLiant servers make it easy to integrate the heterogeneous environments often found in an
SMB environment
C. ProLiant servers, along with VMware ESX Server 3i capabilities, make it attractive for small
businesses to transition to a managed environment
D. Because SMBs favor standalone solutions. HP positions its hardware, software, networking, and
services offerings accordingly
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.serverwatch.com/trends/article.php/ 3937696 /HP-ProLiant-Servers-Buyers-G
uide.htm

NO.5 What must you determine first in order to select a server platform that meets customer needs?
A. the number and type of applications the customer is running
B. how many clients are networked
C. how many simultaneous users are present and anticipated
D. which applications are l/O-intensive and which are bandwidth-intensive
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which statements did a Gartner study find to be true about SMBs? (Select two.)
A. The majority of SMB servers are x86 architecture, with single-core or dual-core processor
installations.
B. SMBs tend to run on Linux, HP-UX. and Microsoft operating systems, in nearly equal numbers
C. Approximately two-thirds of SMBs have external RAID
D. Storage area network (SAN) penetration for small businesses is about 80%.
E. On average, small businesses deploy 1 to 4 servers, while medium businesses deploy 19 to 22
servers.
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 Which description fits the IT staff at a typical SMB?
A. a handful of generalists
B. one owner who assumes all roles
C. outsourced support staff and contractors
D. dedicated administrators for each aspect of the infrastructure
Answer: A

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Reference:http://wtnnews.com/articles/9140/(second paragraph)

NO.8 Which characteristics are typical of lower-tier medium businesses? (Select two.)
A. prefer appliance-type solutions
B. have between 10 and 15 servers
C. have anywhere from zero to five full-time IT staff members
D. prefer customized bundles of hardware, software, and services
E. have a high percentage of employees who are Internet- or email-enabled all the time
Answer: A,E

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Code d'Examen: HP2-B95
Nom d'Examen: HP (Selling HP Exstream Software - Solution Development)
Questions et réponses: 40 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-P10
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Integrity Server Multi-OS Installation and Deployment)
Questions et réponses: 147 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP3-X01
Nom d'Examen: HP (Desktops, Workstations and Notebook Tools and Diagnostics)
Questions et réponses: 20 Q&As

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HP2-B95 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/HP2-B95.html

NO.1 Which functionality is included in the Campaign Management component of the HP Exstream Solution.?
A. Control the social network feeds for a campaign.
B. Prioritize campaigns and target messages based on qualification rules and parameters.
C. Determine postage costs.
D. Determine best message content based on data analytics.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is a way that HP Exstream streamlines business processes?
A. Allows the creation of message rules in a third-party business rule engine.
B. Creates reports on business process optimization.
C. Provides built-in design object approval workflow.
D. Produces unique workflow designs from one template design.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What feature is NOT part of the High Volume Delivery component?
A. multiple output queues
B. barcode objects
C. inserter definitions
D. dynamic output file naming
Answer: C

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NO.4 How does the HP Exstream solution make it easy to support rendering the same document with
different color schemes (full color, black/white, and highlight)?
A. Full color documents can be sent to B&W or highlight color output queues without requiring any
changes to the full color document.
B. The solution provides additional conversion tools to render the document with the desired color
scheme.
C. HP Exstream automatically detects the output printer or mode and will modify the color scheme to fit
the output device.
D. The solution uses Pantone as the color scheme standard.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which features does the Output Sorting and Bundling component provide? (Select two)
A. Provides web based tools for sorting output and creating reports
B. Allows users to conduct extensive sorting with third-party postal cleansing and mail sorting programs.
C. Reprint specific documents from an existing output file.
D. Provides the ability to dynamically reroute documents to alternate output devices based on output
device availability.
E. Determines householding possibilities from data analysis.
Answer: A,D

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