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2014年5月24日星期六

Pass4Test offre de EMC EVP-101 E20-002 E20-547 matériaux d'essai

Aujoud'hui, c'est une société de l'informatique. Beaucoup d'organisations peut provider l'outil de se former pour le test Certification EMC EVP-101. Mais on doit admettre que ces site n'ont pas la capacité à offrir une bonne Q&A, elles sont généralement très vagues et sans les points. C'est loin d'attirer les attentions des candidats.

C'est pas facile à passer le test Certification EMC E20-002, choisir une bonne formation est le premier bas de réussir, donc choisir une bonne resource des informations de test EMC E20-002 est l'assurance du succès. Pass4Test est une assurance comme ça. Une fois que vous choisissez le test EMC E20-002, vous allez passer le test EMC E20-002 avec succès, de plus, un an de service en ligne après vendre est gratuit pour vous.

Vous avez aussi la possibilité à réussir le test EMC E20-547. Pass4Test offre la service de la mise à jour gratuite pendant un an. Si vous échouez le test, votre argent sera tout rendu. Maintenant, vous pouvez télécharger la partie gratuite prendre examinser la qualité des produits de Pass4Test.

Le test EMC E20-547 est le premier pas pour promouvoir dans l'Industrie IT, mais aussi la seule rue ramenée au pic de succès. Le test EMC E20-547 joue un rôle très important dans cette industrie. Et aussi, Pass4Test est un chaînon inevitable pour réussir le test sans aucune doute.

Code d'Examen: EVP-101
Nom d'Examen: EMC (2011 VSE Backup and Recovery Product and Technology Test)
Questions et réponses: 31 Q&As

Code d'Examen: E20-002
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Cloud Infrastructure and Services Exam)
Questions et réponses: 118 Q&As

Code d'Examen: E20-547
Nom d'Examen: EMC (VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators )
Questions et réponses: 203 Q&As

Pass4Test est un site web de vous offrir particulièrement les infos plus chaudes à propos de test Certification EMC E20-002. Pour vous assurer à nous choisir, vous pouvez télécharger les Q&As partielles gratuites. Pass4Test vous promet un succès 100% du test EMC E20-002.

Dans l'Industrie IT, le certificat IT peut vous permet d'une space plus grande de se promouvoir. Généralement, la promotion de l'entreprise repose sur ce que vous avec la certification. Le Certificat EMC EVP-101 est bien autorisé. Avec le certificat EMC EVP-101, vous aurez une meilleure carrière dans le future. Vous pouvez télécharger tout d'abord la partie gratuite de Q&A EMC EVP-101.

Beaucoup de gens trouvent difficile à passer le test EMC E20-002, c'est juste parce que ils n'ont pas bien choisi une bonne Q&A. Vous penserez que le test EMC E20-002 n'est pas du tout autant dur que l'imaginer. Le produit de Pass4Test non seulement comprend les Q&As qui sont impressionnées par sa grande couverture des Questions, mais aussi le service en ligne et le service après vendre.

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NO.1 Which component of a compute system performs the creation and control of logical storage?
A. Volume Manager
B. Operating System
C. DBMS
D. Application
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which problem is addressed by RAID technologies?
A. Data corruption
B. Data backup
C. Data loss
D. Data security
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which RAID type uses parity to protect against data loss?
A. RAID 3
B. RAID 0
C. RAID 1
D. Nested
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which Cloud service model allows the user to run any operating system and application?
A. Platform-as-a-Service
B. Infrastructure-as-a-Service
C. Software-as-a-Service
D. IT-as-a-Service
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which RAID types use no parity in protecting against data loss?
A. RAID 1 and Nested
B. RAID 0 and RAID 6
C. RAID 3 and RAID 5
D. RAID 5 and Nested
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which component retrieves data from disk in an Intelligent Storage System?
A. Front-end
B. Cache
C. LUN
D. Back-end
Answer: D

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NO.7 What best describes the "metered service" characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. Consumers are billed based on resource usage.
B. Services are provisioned based on their demand.
C. Metering services are created when required from the resource pools.
D. Metering services can scale up and down based on resource usage.
Answer: A

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NO.8 In which Cloud deployment model would an organization see operational expenditures grow in
proportion to capital expenditures?
A. On-premise Private Cloud
B. External Private Cloud
C. Public Cloud
D. Hybrid Cloud
Answer: A

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Le plus récent matériel de formation examen EMC E20-555 E20-885 E10-110 de certification

Vous pouvez tout d'abord télécharger le démo EMC E20-555 gratuit dans le site Pass4Test. Une fois que vous décidez à choisir le Pass4Test, Pass4Test va faire tous efforts à vous permettre de réussir le test. Si malheureusement, vous ne passez pas le test, nous allons rendre tout votre argent.

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Pass4Test vous promet de vous aider à passer le test EMC E10-110, vous pouvez télécharger maintenant les Q&As partielles de test EMC E10-110 en ligne. Il y a encore la mise à jour gratuite pendant un an pour vous. Si vous malheureusement rater le test, votre argent sera 100% rendu.

Après une longue attente, les documentations de test EMC E20-885 qui combinent tous les efforts des experts de Pas4Test sont finalement sorties. Les documentations de Pass4Test sont bien répandues pendant les candidats. L'outil de formation est réputée par sa haute précision et grade couverture des questions, d'ailleurs, il est bien proche que test réel. Vous pouvez réussir le test EMC E20-885 à la première fois.

Code d'Examen: E20-555
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Isilon Solutions and Design Specialist Exam for Technology Architects)
Questions et réponses: 225 Q&As

Code d'Examen: E20-885
Nom d'Examen: EMC (VNX Solutions Expert Exam for Implementation Engineers)
Questions et réponses: 163 Q&As

Code d'Examen: E10-110
Nom d'Examen: EMC (EMC Enterprise Content Management)
Questions et réponses: 278 Q&As

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NO.1 A Media and Entertainment company is considering changing from 2K resolution to 4K
resolution. They will continue to use the DNxHD 220 codec.
Assuming everything else stays the same, how will this change affect storage?
A. Storage will be half as large
B. Storage requirements will not change
C. Storage will be twice as large
D. Storage will be four times as large
Answer: B

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NO.2 When an Isilon SyncIQ replication job completes, how many SnapshotIQ policies can be
created on a target cluster directory?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

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NO.3 An Isilon customer expressed an interest in more effectively managing their storage.
Specifically, they would like to plan for future growth.
Which tool would allow the customer to forecast capacity requirements?
A. InsightIQ
B. Isilon SNMP MIB
C. SyncIQ
D. SmartPools
Answer: C

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NO.4 What does Isilon OneFS use to re-write data when a disk read fails?
A. Dynamic Sector Repair
B. NVRAM
C. Isilon Data Integrity
D. CRC
Answer: A

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NO.5 At a minimum, how many connected and available nodes are required to maintain quorum in
a 25-node cluster?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 13
D. 17
Answer: C

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NO.6 If Isilon SmartConnect is being configured in a customer environment, which records are
required for a supported implementation?
A. A SmartConnect Service IP host record and a zone delegation for the SmartConnect zone
delegated to the SSIP
B. An overloaded host record with each SmartConnect zone member's IP address and an SRV record
to provide resolution services
C. A SmartConnect Service IP host record and a corresponding PTR record for each SmartConnect
zone
D. A SOA record for the SmartConnect Service IP and a corresponding CNAME record for each
SmartConnect zone
Answer: A

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NO.7 A NetApp customer is considering Isilon. They use their filers for UNIX home directories, and
would like to see a suggested configuration that would meet their needs.
What would you do to help size this cluster?
A. Ask for an autosupport file and upload it to MiTrends to generate a workflow profile
B. Ask them to install InsightIQ and collect data from the filer, then import to SQL for analysis
C. Ask for the output from nfsstat and upload it to MiTrends to generate a workflow profile
D. Use tcpdump and upload the output file to MiTrends to generate a protocol analysis
Answer: C

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NO.8 -- Exhibit -
A large manufacturing company is an existing Isilon customer with a cluster consisting of four NL400
nodes with 4TB drives. The cluster is using N+2:1 protection level and the file system shows that it is
60% utilized. Home directories and file shares comprise 75% of the existing content and the
remainder is inactive deep archive. The company has 1,000 employees using Windows and Mac
clients participating in a single Active Directory (AD) forest.
During a meeting with the CIO and Director of IT you discuss the company's recent acquisition - an
engineering firm that specializes in Computer Aided Design (CAD). The engineering firm has 400
UNIX workstations that produce technical drawings which are currently stored on another vendor's
SAN solution. The all UNIX environment uses NIS for authentication and name resolution. They do
not currently use DNS or LDAP . The engineering company has an old storage system that has been
experiencing problems and the CIO would like you to migrate the data onto the Isilon cluster. The
CIO would like to eliminate all tape and recover the data onto disk.
The CIO is concerned about security of the company's intellectual property, especially with the rapid
adoption of mobile devices and external cloud content sharing services such as DropBox, Egnyte,
and SugarSync. They would like to implement an alternative that provides external file sharing and
mobile device synchronization while maintaining security control over the company's data.
The Director of IT reports that users are storing non-work related content on the Isilon cluster. They
would like to limit the amount of capacity that each user can consume in their home directory and
want to ensure you provide the capability to easily visualize which users are over their
allotment.The company's Windows users currently leverage Windows Shadow Copy to recover files
that have been accidentally deleted. The IT department wants to ensure that Mac and incoming
UNIX clients have the same functionality.
The Director of IT also mentions that users are reporting slow response times when browsing their
home directories and shared folders. They are concerned that Isilon cannot scale to support their
combined requirements.
-- Exhibit -
Based on the meeting with the customer, which Isilon cluster configuration would you recommend?
A. 4 x X400 nodes with 2 x SSD and 34 x 4TB drives 1 x Additional NL400
B. 6 x X400 nodes with 36 x 4TB drives 1 x Backup Accelerator
C. 4 x NL400 nodes with 36 x 4TB drives
D. 9 x S200 nodes with 2 x SSD and 22 x 900GB SAS
Answer: A

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Les meilleures EMC E20-880 E20-007 examen pratique questions et réponses

Pass4Test peut offrir nombreux de documentations aux candidats de test EMC E20-880, et aider les candidats à réussir le test. Les marétiaux visés au test EMC E20-880 sont tout recherchés par les experts avec leurs connaissances professionnelles et les expériences. Les charactéristiques se reflètent dans la bonne qualité de Q&A, la vitesse de la mise à jour. Le point plus important est que notre Q&A est laquelle le plus proche du test réel. Pass4Test peut vous permettre à réussir le test EMC E20-880 100%.

E20-007 est un test de EMC Certification, donc réussir E20-007 est le premier pas à mettre le pied sur la Certifiction EMC. Ça peut expliquer certiainement pourquoi le test EMC E20-007 devient de plus en plus chaud, et il y a de plus en plus de gens qui veulent participer le test E20-007. Au contraire, il n'y a que pas beaucoup de gens qui pourrait réussir ce test. Dans ce cas, si vous vous réfléchissez étudier avec une bonne Q&A?

Finalement, la Q&A EMC E20-007 plus nouvelle est lancé avec tous efforts des experts de Pass4Test. Aujourd'hui, dans l'Industrie de IT, si on veut se renforcer sa place, il faut se preuve la professionnalité aux les autres. Le test EMC E20-007 est une bonne examination des connaissances professionnelles. Avec le passport de la Certification EMC, vous aurez un meilleur salaire et une plus grande space à se développer.

Code d'Examen: E20-880
Nom d'Examen: EMC (VNX Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects)
Questions et réponses: 128 Q&As

Code d'Examen: E20-007
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Data Science and Big Data Analytics)
Questions et réponses: 165 Q&As

Aujourd'hui, il y a pleine de professionnels IT dans cette société. Ces professionnels sont bien populaires mais ils ont à être en face d'une grande compétition. Donc beaucoup de professionnels IT se prouver par les tests de Certification très difficile à réussir. Pass4Test est voilà pour offrir un raccourci au succès de test Certification.

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NO.1 A customer is about to implement your VNX for File design for a file-sharing environment. The design
specifies both NFS and Windows clients that access file systems in a multi-threaded manner. All file
systems will be created using the Automatic Volume Manager. The customer is most concerned with disk
efficiency, and wants to use all storage in each pool entry before creating another.
Which value would you change to meet this requirement?
A. is_greedy
B. slice
C. is_dynamic
D. stripesize
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer has created a thin LUN, enabled compression on a LUN Pool, and installed their Exchange
environment. The Exchange application is showing poor performance.
Which workload characteristic of Exchange would produce poor access times on a compressed LUN?
A. Small random writes
B. Small random reads
C. Sequential reads
D. Uncompressed or host based data
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are working with a customer to design a VNX for Block solution for their SQL database. They
currently have a CX4-480. In the past they have co-located their database and log files. In the new VNX
design, the database will be placed in a FAST VP enabled pool. The transaction logs will be placed on a
traditional RAID Group. Your customer needs help determining the number of spindles they need to
satisfy the needs of their transaction logs.
You know the following: -Transactionperiod:8 hours (business day) -Throughput during transaction
period:240 GB
How many RAID 1/0 15K spindles will the transaction log volume require?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 10
D. 16
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer is in the design phase of their SQL server implementation. They request your guidance
concerning the number of disk drives needed to properly configure the database for performance. The
current utilization of the database is shown below:
-80% reads and 20% writes
-10K SAS disks
-RAID 5
-1150 IOPS
What is the minimum number of disk spindles required to service the random I/O requests during usage of
the SQL Server database?
A. 12
B. 14
C. 18
D. 20
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer has designed an environment using block based LUNs presented to individual hosts. They
have configured a pool to start using both thick and thin LUNs. One of the standalone servers is an
archive server running on Windows. They want to maximize capacity on the standalone server since the
data is no longer accessed. They have no more drives to increase LUN capacity.
How can the customer increase available capacity to the archive server?
A. Compress the data on the block based LUN
B. Add capacity to the existing LUN
C. Delete old files
D. Back up the files, reconfigure the LUN, and restore the data
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer is checking a NAR file in Unisphere Analyzer. They see that a RAID Group with only a single
LUN is shown with consistently large Disk - Average Seek Distances.
What could this indicate?
A. Randomness of the I/O
B. Write utilization
C. LUN misalignment
D. Applicationburstiness
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer would like to configure their VNX for File for the highest possible level of client availability.
There are five Ethernet ports on a single DataMover and a single Ethernet switch available for client
communications.
What availability features would you recommend to the customer?
A. Link Aggregation Control Protocol only
B. EtherChannel port aggregation and Fail Safe Networking
C. Fail Safe Networking and Link Aggregation Control Protocol
D. EtherChannel port aggregation only
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer is in the design phase of their SQL server implementation. They request your guidance
concerning the number of disk drives needed to properly configure the database for performance. The
current utilization of the database is shown below:S
-85% reads and 15% writes
-10K SAS disks
-RAID 1/0
-1150 IOPS
What is the minimum number of disk spindles required to service the random I/O requests during usage of
the SQL Server database?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14
Answer: B

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2014年5月2日星期五

Certification EMC de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen E20-007 E20-326 EVP-100, questions et réponses

Tant que vous avez besion de participer l'examen, nous pouvons toujours mettre à jour de matériaux à propos de test Certification EMC E20-007. Le guide d'étude de Pass4Test comprend les excercices de EMC E20-007 et la Q&A qui peut vous permetrre à réussir 100% le test EMC E20-007. Vous pouvez faire une meilleure préparation pour le test. D'ailleurs, la mise à jour pendant un an après vendre est gratuite pour vous.

Beaucoup de travailleurs dans l'Industrie IT peut obenir un meilleur travail et améliorer son niveau de vie à travers le Certificat EMC E20-326. Mais la majorité des candidats dépensent beaucoup de temps et d'argent pour préparer le test, ça ne coûte pas dans cette société que le temps est tellement précieux. Pass4Test peut vous aider à économiser le temps et l'effort pendant le cours de la préparation du test EMC E20-326. Choisir le produit de Pass4Test particulier pour le test Certification EMC E20-326 vous permet à réussir 100% le test. Votre argent sera tout rendu si malheureusement vous ne passez pas le test.

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Code d'Examen: E20-007
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Data Science and Big Data Analytics)
Questions et réponses: 165 Q&As

Code d'Examen: E20-326
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Design Exam)
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

Code d'Examen: EVP-100
Nom d'Examen: EMC (2011 VSE Consolidate Product & Technology Test)
Questions et réponses: 133 Q&As

Pass4Test est un site à offrir les Q&As de tout les tests Certification IT. Chez Pass4Test, vous pouvez trouvez de meilleurs matériaux. Nos guides d'étude vous permettent de réussir le test Certification EMC E20-326 sans aucune doute, sinon nous allons rendre votre argent d'acheter la Q&A et la mettre à jour tout de suite, en fait, c'est une situation très rare. Bien que il existe plusieurs façons à améliorer votre concurrence de carrière, Pass4Test est lequel plus efficace : Moins d'argent et moins de temps dépensés, plus sûr à passer le test Certification. De plus, un an de service après vendre est gratuit pour vous.

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NO.1 A customer will migrate existing AIX, HP-UX and Windows hosts from a DMX-3 to a new VMAX array.
You need performance data from the existing array to design to the new VMAX volumes configuration
layout. Which tools can be used to collect Symmetrix array performance data?
A. ControlCenter Performance Manager and STP Collector
B. EMC Workload Generator and STP Navigator
C. Storage Configuration Advisor and STP Collector
D. ControlCenter Performance Manager and SymmMerge
Answer: A

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NO.2 A Symmetrix VMAX has been configured with Dynamic Cache Partitions.
What is a criterion that must be met for a cache slot to be eligible for donation?
A. The fall through time must be greater than the donation age
B. The fall through time must be less than the donation age
C. The cache slot must belong to a static partition
D. There must be available cache slots in the default partition
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are proposing a new VMAX array with FAST VP. The customer reports their application needs a
small amount of EFD capacity and asks whether 200 GB EFDs or 400 GB EFDs would provide better
overall performance. Which drive size do you recommend and why?
A. 400 GB EFDs. They support higher IOPS than 200 GB EFDs.
B. 200 GB EFDs. They support higher I/O density than 400 GB EFDs.
C. 400 GB EFDs. They support higher I/O density than 200 GB EFDs.
D. 200 GB EFDs. They support higher IOPS than 400 GB EFDs.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Prior to starting an implementation, which tool should be used to automate the data collection on a UNIX
host?
A. EMCGrab
B. EMCReports
C. E-Lab Advisor
D. Change Tracker
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are designing a new VMAX array. The customer requires high performance for their random
write-intensive application. Which RAID protection should you recommend?
A. RAID-5
B. RAID-6
C. RAID-1
D. RAID-S
Answer: C

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NO.6 A major telecommunications operator is planning to consolidate multiple mid-tier storage arrays to a
single Symmetrix VMAX solution. Their existing environment includes IBM AIX servers, HP-UX Servers
and Windows 2003 Servers.
When documenting the existing Server environment, which command can be used on the HP-UX Servers,
to list the software modules installed?
A. swlist
B. lslpp
C. pkginfo
D. pkgchk
Answer: A

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NO.7 A TimeFinder/Snap of production data must be recreated in a two hour cycle throughout the day.
Which change tracker report will provide the best data for modeling a solution for the twenty-four hour
period?
A. Delta report reset every two hours
B. SUM report over two hours
C. Delta report reset every twenty four hours
D. SUM report over twenty four hours
Answer: A

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NO.8 You are designing a new disaster recovery solution with VMAX arrays. During the initial project kick-off
meeting, the customer reports their environment can tolerate five minutes or less of data recovery
following a disaster but have not yet determined the maximum allowable downtime for their applications.
The customer asks which remote replication methods you recommend for their environment.
What do you recommend?
A. Defer making a recommendation until the application RTO is known.
B. Recommend the disaster recovery solution as described in the Sales Order.
C. Defer making a recommendation until the application RPO in known.
D. Recommend the disaster recovery solution described in the Statement of Work.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: E20-520
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Calriion solutions specialist exam)
Questions et réponses: 520 Q&As

Code d'Examen: E20-805
Nom d'Examen: EMC (EMC Storage and Information Infrastructure Expert Exam for Techno)
Questions et réponses: 125 Q&As

Code d'Examen: E20-390
Nom d'Examen: EMC (VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers )
Questions et réponses: 333 Q&As

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NO.1 What should be done to throttle the amount of data being sent over the T3 line when new servers are
brought under RecoverPoint control?
A. Use the compression slider settings for best compression within the cluster
B. Use the balance_load CLI commands to distribute the CGs across the RPAs in the cluster evenly
C. Use the compression slider settings for best performance within the cluster
D. Use a combination of Distributed Consistency Group and bandwidth limits on the Oracle CGs in the
cluster
Answer: A

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NO.2 You have been asked to design a long-distance replication solution with MirrorView/S. You want to
simulate this Exchange environment and gather the baseline 200 km performance data and additional
simul-ations to perform failover testing.
Which tool should you use?
A. loadgen
B. loadsim
C. EPA
D. JetStress
Answer: A

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NO.3 After three months of operations, the Monday SQL full backup is consistently running longer than the
defined backup window. For compliance purposes a tape backup must be created every Monday.
What would be the most secure way to meet the backup window with the least impact to existing
processes?
A. Change the schedule of the baseline snapshot to run before the Monday SQL full backup. Create the
tape copy from the baseline snapshot.
B. Change the Monday SQL full backup to a differential backup. Copy the differential backup to tape. Run
a SQL full backup only once a month.
C. Change the Monday SQL full backup to back up to a new CIFS share in the VNX. Use NDMP to create
a tape copy from the CIFS share.
D. Change the drive count to increase the aggregate performance of the database so that the Monday
SQL full backup runs faster.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A new VMware customer would like to understand RecoverPoint s additional DR protection levels for
their virtual machines.
What design alterations should you propose?
A. Set up the ESX servers by using a CLR protection method and VMware s SRM functionality for
automated DR response.
B. Implement VMware SRM with the existing CDP configuration to provide automated local recovery.
C. Implement RecoverPoint CDP protection and augment the CDP copy with CLARiiON SnapView
technology.
D. Implement VMware fault tolerance on each VM between the two sites.
Answer: A

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Topic 2, Scenario 21
Refer to the Exhibit.
A customer is migrating from their present DAS solution to a new VNX array. As part of the migration, you
have been tasked with sizing the Microsoft Exchange 2010 environment, specifically sizing the
appropriate IOPS profile for the Exchange mailbox servers.
The customer has profiled the environment and provided you with the data in the exhibit. Each mailbox
store contains 100-120 heavy profile users, and each server has 10-12 mailbox stores. Mailbox limits
have been put in place at 500 MB per mailbox. Deleted item retention has been left at default values.

NO.5 You have planned to implement Replication Manager in this environment to manage the backup
requirements.
According to EMC best practices, what prerequisite should you consider?
A. Circular logging must be disabled.
B. Circular logging must be enabled.
C. Transaction logs and database files must be located on the same volume.
D. "Transaction Log location:" and System path location:" for each storage group must be different
Answer: A

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Topic 3, Scenario 13
Refer to the Exhibit.
Your customer s SQL Server environment uses native SQL backup including more granular backups such
as differential backup, as well as transaction logs, to enhance the recovery solution built into the SQL
Server.
This customer also has a software development team that currently updates the development SQL
databases from the nightly production backups. All SQL environments are hosted on VNX iSCSI LUNs.
You propose creating replicas using VNX snaps, as shown in the exhibit. Your proposal includes the
implementation of Replication Manager in this environment.

NO.6 Which tool helps in analyzing the Exchange environment and provides reports on how the environment
compares with current best practices in deploying the Exchange environment?
A. ExBPA
B. Microsoft Windows Performance Monitor
C. loadsim
D. System Attendant
Answer: A

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NO.7 How would you justify the use of CLARiiON splitters in your design.?
A. To avoid an excessive number of ITLs created on the SANTap splitter
B. To take advantage of the VMware vCenter integration for protected virtual machines
C. To minimize the required hardware purchases if SANTap was used for all splitting
D. To separate the splitter load to reduce the expected high load on the WAN link
Answer: A

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NO.8 Topic 1, Scenario 27
Refer to the Exhibit.
A financial institution is implementing a disaster recovery (DR) solution for their key Oracle databases and
other critical data. RecoverPoint has been chosen as the replication technology to use for the DR solution.
For maximum protection, the replication uses CLR for all Oracle systems; CRR is used for all other data.
The production site uses Sun servers for the Oracle servers and Microsoft Windows Server 2008 hosts for
all other data repositories. Storage arrays for the Oracle servers are Symmetrix arrays. All other data and
business departments store their data on CLARiiON CX4 arrays.
Recently, the human resources and finance departments were migrated to the DMX to enhance security
and performance requirements.
This company also plans to bring in a new acquisition with AIX and VMware servers in the next six months.
The AIX servers will be placed on DMX storage and the VMware servers will be placed on CLARiiON
storage. Both are slated for CDP protection.
The DR site is located 2,500 km away from the production site. A dedicated T3 WAN link runs at 44 Mb/s.
Management and replication traffic will use separate VLANs. Each site contains eight RecoverPoint
appliances (RPAs) to maximize the performance and fault-tolerance business requirements. SANTap is
used for all Oracle splitting, and CX splitters are used for all other data.
To support the actual replication needs, 12 group sets were created to support the consistency within the
Oracle consistency groups. The policies on these sets include an RPO of 15 minutes.
The remainder of the data uses 54 consistency groups with an RPO of two hours.
1.What should be done to improve the performance of the WAN link for replication?
A. Enable QoS for the VLAN with RecoverPoint traffic
B. Set the link speed on the RPA to "max throughput"
C. Enable QoS on the Oracle consistency groups
D. Configure EtherChannel Link Aggregation for use with the WAN link
Answer: A

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2014年4月17日星期四

Le matériel de formation de l'examen de meilleur EMC E20-455

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Code d'Examen: E20-455
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Content Management Web Application Programming Exam)
Questions et réponses: 153 Q&As

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NO.1 Your employer asks you to rename the custom folder for your WDK application to "datasink."
Which XML entry represents the correct means of changing the custom folder's name?
A. <custom>
<application>
<application-name>AppFolderName</param-name>
<application-value>datasink</param-value>
</application>
...
B. <config>
<app-param>
<param-name>AppFolderName</param-name>
<param-value extends="webtop/custom">datasink</param-value>
</app-param>
...
C. <web-inf>
<context-param>
<param-name>AppFolderName</param-name>
<param-value inherits="webtop/custom">datasink</param-value>
</context-param>
...
D. <web-app>
<context-param>
<param-name>AppFolderName</param-name>
<param-value>datasink</param-value>
</context-param>
...
Answer: D

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NO.2 You have implemented a custom authentication scheme, MyAuthenticationScheme.
To what must you add your scheme to ensure it is active?
A. in a properties file under the custom directory
B. in the app.xml under the custom directory
C. in a properties file under the WEB-INF/classes directory
D. in the web.xml under the WEB-INF directory
Answer: C

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NO.3 For what can a qualifier be used?
A. to filter valid data to be displayed
B. to check permissions during authentication
C. to scope and filter actions and components
D. to check data against the data dictionary
Answer: C

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NO.4 Where must component configuration files be located?
A. anywhere within application directories
B. in the config directory only
C. in the config directory and its subdirectories
D. anywhere, since the location is configurable
Answer: C

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NO.5 Where are the WDK servlets defined?
A. app.xml
B. wdk.xml
C. web.xml
D. server.xml
Answer: C

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NO.6 Given the following fragment:
<contains>
<component>newFolder</component>
<component>attributes</component>
<component requiresVisit='true'>permissions</component>
</contains>
Which statement is true?
A. The container will commit changes upon visit to each component.
B. The permissions component must be viewed before the container can commit changes.
C. The OK button will be enabled upon viewing the newFolder component.
D. The permissions component will be the default component within the container.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which statement is true about action and component XML definitions?
A. Actions and components always require parameters.
B. Actions and components have layouts/presentations.
C. Action and component dispatchers use the same qualifiers.
D. Action and component definitions may contain preconditions.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which type of container provides breadcrumb control functionality?
A. dialogcontainer
B. wizardcontainer
C. combocontainer
D. navigationcontainer
Answer: D

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NO.9 How do you automatically include a custom JavaScript file to be in all of your JSPs?
A. by adding a reference to the component configuration file
B. by specifying it as an application parameter in the app.xml
C. by appending a reference to the Javascript file WebformScripts.properties
D. by using the <@ page import="custom/myUtils.js"> directive
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which statement is true about Trusted Authentication Scheme (Principal Support)?
A. It disables authentication through the Content Server.
B. It allows a superuser account to impersonate any given user.
C. The application server user name must not match a repository superuser.
D. A non-superuser account may be used to obtain login tickets.
Answer: B

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NO.11 You have written a custom authentication scheme and have correctly added the scheme to the system.
You discover a problem in the code, which causes the scheme to always return null.
How does the null return value affect authentication in Webtop?
A. Any remaining schemes are skipped, and the login dialog is presented immediately.
B. Any remaining schemes are attempted, where the login dialog is usually the final authentication
scheme.
C. The scheme throws a null pointer exception and prevents other schemes from authenticating.
D. The scheme automatically logs the user in as the repository administrator.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which order represents the default Preset precedence?
A. location, user, role, object type
B. user, object type, role, location
C. user, role, object type, location
D. location, role, user, object type
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which is true about Presets?
A. Presets are not used to provide security
B. Presets descend to subfolders
C. Presets applied to a folder do not apply to the files imported into the folder
D. Presets only comprise of a single rule each
Answer: A

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NO.14 Given the following code: fragment:
<scope type="dm_folder">
<component id="delete" notdefined="true" />
</scope>
Which statement is true about the notdefined attribute?
A. The delete component is available for dm_folder types, but not for dm_cabinet types.
B. The delete component is available for dm_folder and dm_cabinet types, but not for dm_document
types.
C. The delete component is available for dm_document types, but not for dm_folder or dm_cabinet types.
D. The delete component is available for dm_document, dm_folder and dm_cabinet types.
Answer: C

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NO.15 What makes up a component definition file?
A. pages, parameters, NLS, description
B. pages, behavior, NLS, controls
C. pages, behavior, parameters, events
D. behavior, scope, NLS, actions
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which diagram represents a typical Component Processing Sequence?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: A

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NO.17 Given the following fragment:
<filter role="contributor, not administrator">
...
</filter>
Which roles will be allowed to use the definition within this filter element?
A. contributors, coordinators, consumers and administrators
B. contributors, coordinators, and consumers, but not administrators
C. contributors, coordinators, but not administrators or consumers
D. contributors, but not administrators, coordinators or consumers
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which code fragment lists the components for a container?
A. <contains>
<component>attributes</component>
<component>permissions</component>
<component>history</component>
</contains>
B. <pages>
<component>attributes</component>
<component>permissions</component>
<component>history</component>
</pages>
C. <include>
<component>attributes</component>
<component>permissions</component>
<component>history</component>
</include>
D. <params>
<component>attributes</component>
<component>permissions</component>
<component>history</component>
</params>
Answer: A

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NO.19 The highest level application layer of a WDK application is defined in which file?
A. app.xml
B. conf.xml
C. wdk.xml
D. web.xml
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which authentication scheme enables safe automatic login by passing credentials in the URL?
A. Docbase Login Authentication Scheme
B. User Principal Authentication Scheme
C. Uniform Resource Locator Authentication Scheme
D. Ticketed Authentication Scheme
Answer: D

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NO.21 According to the diagram, which component definition will be used for all instances of the type
sop_doc? Assume all four definitions exist in the application.
A. <config version="1.0">
<scope type="dm_sysobject">
<component id="checkin">
...
</component>
</scope>
</config>
B. <config version="1.0">
<scope type="corporate_docs">
<component id="checkin">
...
</component>
</scope>
</config>
C. <config version="1.0">
<scope type="procedure_doc">
<component id="checkin">
...
</component>
</scope>
</config>
D. <config version="1.0">
<scope type="dm_folder">
<component id="checkin">
...
</component>
</scope>
</config>
Answer: B

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NO.22 Which statement is true about the inheritance of elements between application layers?
A. Elements are inherited from lower layers if they are not overridden in the higher layers.
B. Elements are inherited from lower layers only if they are overridden in the higher layers.
C. Elements are inherited from all application layers regardless of application layer hierarchy.
D. Elements are only inherited from application layers that are at the same level in the application layer
hierarchy.
Answer: A

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NO.23 If you want a new application layer in between the custom and webtop layers, then which file should
you extend?
A. \custom\app.xml
B. \webtop\app.xml
C. \WEB-INF\web.xml
D. \webtop\main_component.xml
Answer: B

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NO.24 Given the following onInit() methods for two components:
In component A:
public void onInit(ArgumentList args)
{
super.onInit(args);
ArgumentList args2= new ArgumentList();
args2.add("MyArg", "MyValue");
setComponentNested ("B", args2, getContext(), this);
}
In component B:
public void onInit(ArgumentList args)
{
super.onInit(args);
String myVal = args.get("MyArg");
System.out.println (myVal);
}
The println statement returns null for myVal.
What is the likely cause of this?
A. ArgumentLists can not be passed between components.
B. ArgumentLists always start out empty in onInit() methods.
C. MyArg is not defined in the <params> element of the component definition B.
D. The ArgumentList for component A is independent of the ArgumentList for component B.
Answer: C

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NO.25 Where do you register a custom theme?
A. app.xml
B. BrandingServiceProp.properties
C. webforms.css
D. web.xml
Answer: A

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NO.26 Which directories are representative of application layers in a default Webtop installation?
A. WEB-INF and webtop
B. WEB-INF and wdk
C. custom and webtop
D. custom and help
Answer: C

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NO.27 How do you make only one theme available to users?
A. You include only one theme definition in the application configuration file in the custom layer.
B. You set the visible attribute of the dmf:datadropdownlist control for the theme to false.
C. You delete all the theme directories except the one you want from custom/themes.
D. You remove all but one theme definition from the application configuration file in the webcomponent
layer.
Answer: A

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NO.28 You are creating a component that requires verification to determine if the OK button can be selected.
Which container method can be overridden to implement this functionality?
A. onOK()
B. onNextPage()
C. onCommitChanges()
D. canCommitChanges()
Answer: D

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NO.29 You do not see the Presets option in Webtop. What could be a possible reason?
A. The Content Server does not have a license for Presets.
B. The BOF registry entry is incorrect in the dfc.properties file.
C. You are not a superuser.
D. You are not a system administrator.
Answer: B

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NO.30 You have a component that is contained within a dialogcontainer.
What are the correct criteria to display the Close button?
A. canCommitChanges() returns false and canCancelChanges() returns false
B. canCommitChanges() returns true and canCancelChanges() returns false
C. canCommitChanges() returns false and canCancelChanges() returns true
D. canCommitChanges() returns true and canCancelChanges() returns true
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: E22-315
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Disk Library and Backup to Disk Technologies)
Questions et réponses: 117 Q&As

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NO.1 How do the EMC Disk Library DL4x06 models provide improved data availability and resiliency?
A.1 TB hard drives
B.Active Engine Failover
C.Hardware compression
D.RAID 6
Answer: D

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has a DL4200 connected to two switches in the same fabric, as shown in the exhibit.
Windows Backup Server X is zoned to port 1 on Engine A and Windows Backup Server Y is zoned to port
7 on Engine B. Active Engine Failover has been configured and is active.
Both backup servers are performing backups at the same time to their respective engines. Engine A has a
failure and all virtual services fail over to Engine B.
The backup administrator has verified that failover has occurred as expected but Backup X is unable to
see its virtual resources through the surviving engine even after rescanning the SCSI bus.
What is the problem?
A.Engine to switch cabling is incorrect
B.Engines are connected to different switches
C.Lack of PowerPath configuration on the backup servers
D.Missing EMC NetWorker DL-Failover license
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are the major components of an EMC Disk Library?
A.EMC disk drives, EMC Disk Library solutions, and EMC Disk Library services
B.EMC Disk Library appliance, EMC Disk Library, CLARiiON, and EMC Disk Library server
C.EMC Disk Library, EMC Disk Library client, and EMC Disk Library Console
D.EMC Disk Library, EMC Tape Library, and EMC Disk Library server
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the recommended configuration for a Celerra ATA disk-array enclosure that will be used as a
backup-to-disk target?
A.RAID 3 4+1
B.RAID 3 7+1
C.RAID 5 4+1
D.RAID 5 7+1
Answer: C

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NO.5 What does N_Port ID Virtualization (NPIV) functionality provide to a DL4200?
A.Disk library failover on a multilibrary configuration in a switched fabric environment
B.Disk library failover on a multilibrary configuration in an arbitrated loop environment
C.Engine failover on a multinode configuration in a switched fabric environment
D.Engine failover on a multinode configuration in an arbitrated loop environment
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which EMC Disk Library feature allows export to physical tape media?
A.Auto Archive
B.Direct Access
C.Duplication
D.Remote copy
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer wants to implement one EMC Disk Library in the primary data center and one EMC Disk
Library in the remote data center. What is the recommended feature to use to provide backup application
catalog consistency between two data centers?
A.ACSLS
B.Active Engine Failover
C.Consolidated Media Management
D.Remote copy
Answer: C

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NO.8 A customer wants to implement one EMC Disk Library at their primary data center and one EMC Disk
Library at their disaster recovery site with IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) as the backup application. A
small subset of the primary data needs to be transferred to a disaster recovery site where it will eventually
expire without TSM involvement.
What is a recommended feature to use with EMC Disk Library to transfer data to the disaster recovery
site?
A.Active Tape Migrator
B.Compression
C.Remote Copy
D.Tape Capacity-on-Demand
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which EMC Disk Library feature allows export to physical tape media?
A.Advanced Copy
B.Auto Archive
C.Remote copy
D.Tape Migration
Answer: B

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NO.10 An EMC NetWorker customer is using a file type device for backup-to-disk. What will happen if the file
type device fills up?
A.Save is suspended and expired save sets on the volume are deleted
B.The device expands automatically and the save operation continues
C.The save operation is aborted and a new volume is selected for writing
D.The volume is marked full and save continues on a new volume
Answer: D

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NO.11 How do the EMC Disk Library DL4x06 models provide improved data availability and resiliency?
A.1 TB hard drives
B.Active Engine Failover
C.Compression
D.RAID 6
Answer: D

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NO.12 A customer wants to implement a solution that would allow maximum availability for backups to
complete. Which EMC Disk Library feature will provide maximum availability for their backup solution?
A.Active Engine Failover
B.Backup Engine Failover
C.CLARiiON Engine Failover
D.Passive Engine Failover
Answer: A

EMC   E22-315   E22-315

NO.13 Which EMC Disk Library models support ACSLS?
A.DL210, DL4100, DL4106
B.DL4100, DL4106, DL6100
C.DL4106, DL210, DL6100
D.DL6100, DL210, DL4100
Answer: B

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NO.14 A customer with a Linux backup server plans to use a CLARiiON as the target for backups. What
should be recommended for adequate I/O performance?
A.Set the read cache to the maximum limit
B.Set the storage element to 256 KB
C.Use a cache page size of 64 KB
D.Use fdisk to correct disk misalignment
Answer: D

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NO.15 Where can an EMC Disk Library provide the best value to a customer?
A.Backup and restore speed, capacity, and reliability
B.Portability, investment protection, and TCO/ROI
C.Recovery speed, ease of use, and company reputation
D.Reliability, ease of use, and portability
Answer: A

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NO.16 What should be used to configure and manage the EMC Disk Library?
A.EMC ControlCenter for EMC Disk Library
B.EMC Disk Library Console software
C.EMC Disk Library Navisphere software
D.Management is integrated with the backup application
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which type of connectivity is required from the backup host to the EMC Disk Library?
A.CIFS
B.Fibre Channel
C.Internet Protocol
D.NFS
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which type of connectivity is required from a backup host to the EMC Disk Library?
A.Copper Network
B.Ethernet NAS
C.Fibre Channel
D.IP NAS
Answer: C

EMC   E22-315   E22-315

NO.19 In order to increase effective usable capacity on an EMC Disk Library, which feature is available?
A.Active Engine Failover
B.Auto Archive
C.Consolidated Media Management
D.Virtual Tape Library Compression
Answer: D

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NO.20 Where can an EMC Disk Library provide the best value to a customer?
A.Backup and restore speed, capacity, and reliability
B.Investment protection, space issues, and portability
C.Portability, recovery speed, and ease of use
D.TCO/ROI, company reputation, and investment protection
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: E20-822
Nom d'Examen: EMC (CLARiiON Solutions Expert Exam for Storage Administrators)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 A company has requested an independent consultant to develop and implement a security model for
the CLARiiON storage platform. The company has limited access to the administrator role by removing
rights for all accounts. However, they would like to keep the single administrator role account for top level
management.
Management of user security should not be done by the administrator role user. In addition, the storage
object administrators should not be able to change user security when using the Secure CLI. CLARiiON
storage systems are located in a protected data center with limited physical access.
Which method should be employed to manage user security?
A.Create a Security Administrator role user and create a Manager role user account for storage object
managers.
B.Create a Security Administrator role user, enable the CLI filter, and create a Manager role user account
for storage object managers.
C.Implement security using PKI certificates, create a Security Administrator role user, and enable the CLI
filter.
D.Implement security using PKI certificates, enable the CLI filter, and create a Manager role user account
for storage object managers.
Answer: B

EMC   E20-822   E20-822

NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
While performing a routine check of a CX3-40 with FLARE R26 the storage administrator receives an
error while trying to clear the logs. What is the cause of the error?
A.Host agent is not running
B.The Privileged User List is empty
C.The user is logged in as a security administrator role
D.The user is logged in with a manager role
Answer: D

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer wants to create an additional 250 GB LUN on their existing RAID 6 group. How can this be
accomplished?
A.Create the LUN on another RAID 6 group using concatenation
B.Defragment the RAID group and bind the additional LUN
C.Destroy the RAID group and create the new LUNs
D.Expand the RAID group to increase the available space
Answer: A

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NO.4 A new CLARiiON arrives at a customer's site and an EMC Customer Engineer performs the physical
installation. The storage administrator is under a lot of pressure to have the array online and in production
by the end of the week. The storage administrator selects several Windows and Solaris servers for the
initial production rollout. The storage requirements have been agreed upon and the storage administrator
creates 30 LUNs of various sizes based upon EMC best practices.
The administrator works with the server team to install HBAs, update settings, install EMC software, and
then perform the necessary cabling and zoning requirements. After the hosts successfully register with
the CLARiiON array, the Windows and Solaris administrators state each server has 30 LUNs allocated.
What does the storage administrator need to accomplish to ensure each server has access to the
appropriate LUNs?
A.Create the appropriate storage groups
B.Disable Access Logix
C.Enable Access Logix
D.Fix the incorrect zones
Answer: C

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NO.5 A new CLARiiON arrives at a customer's site and an EMC Customer Engineer performs the physical
installation. The storage administrator is under a lot of pressure to have the array online and in production
by the end of the week. The storage administrator selects several Windows and Solaris servers for the
initial production rollout. The storage requirements have been agreed upon and the storage administrator
creates 30 LUNs of various sizes based upon EMC best practices.
The administrator works with the server team to install HBAs, update settings, install EMC software, and
then perform the necessary cabling and zoning requirements. After the hosts successfully register with
the CLARiiON array, the Windows and Solaris administrators state each server has 30 LUNs allocated.
What does the storage administrator need to accomplish to ensure each server has access to the
appropriate LUNs?
A.Create the appropriate storage groups
B.Disable Access Logix
C.Enable Access Logix
D.Fix the incorrect zones
Answer: C

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
You are the SAN Administrator at a company. The company is running multiple Exchange Server 2007
storage groups on a CLARiiON array that exclusively uses 15k rpm 146 GB drives. You have been tasked
with adding a third Exchange storage group with one mailbox store to the existing server.
The storage for this new Exchange storage group must be allocated from the same CLARiiON currently
running the other two Exchange storage groups. All Exchange storage groups are presently exhibiting a
1:1 read/write ratio. The new storage group will require capacity identical to the existing Exchange
storage groups.
The table below, as well as the exhibit, indicates the current utilization of the array.w`V6a2tYJ%&,*In
order to satisfy the capacity requirements (GB and IOPS), in which RAID group must you create a
database LUN for the new Exchange storage group?
A.0
B.10
C.20
D.30b
Answer: C

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NO.7 A customer is currently using Replication Manager to create clone copies of their SQL Server instance
which are then mounted to a backup server and streamed to tape. The customer has decided to purchase
a second CLARiiON and implement a DR scenario. The DR site is located 30 km away. A dedicated T1
(1.5 Mb) line is leased specifically for DR purposes with measured latencies that average 5-10 ms.
The application is considered mission-critical and as such very little data loss is acceptable. Any solution
implemented must have very little impact on performance. Time will be allowed for the application to be
recovered in the case of a disaster. The implemented solution must also allow for transaction logs to be
replayed in the case of data corruption.
Which DR solution would best fit this scenario?
A.MirrorView/A
B.RepliStor SQL Server Module
C.SQL Log Shipping/Full SAN Copy from the production LUN
D.SQL Log Shipping/Incremental SAN Copy from the production LUN
Answer: C

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NO.8 A customer is implementing the Replication Manager/SAN Copy/RepliStor solution for DR of their
Exchange environment. In the process of configuring this solution they need to configure the RM DR
utility to run after the completion of the SAN Copy job.
Which level of IR callout should they use in order for the script to invoke at the proper time?
A.100
B.300
C.400
D.600
Answer: D

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NO.9 A customer has a single RAID group with a RAID 1/0 6+6 LUN on a dedicated DAE2. This LUN is
active on SP A. They need to expand with the maximum possible increase in IOPS. The LUN may not go
offline. The customer has a new DAE2 with the same disks.
How should they proceed?
A.Add 12 disks to the current RAID group. Create a new LUN. Create a striped metaLUN.
B.Back up the current LUN. Create a new RAID group and a new LUN on SP B. Present it to the host and
create a LVM plaid. Restore the data.
C.Create a new RAID group and create a new LUN on SP A. Create a concatenated metaLUN.
D.Create a new RAID group and create a new LUN on SP A. Create a striped metaLUN.
Answer: D

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NO.10 A customer is reporting a problem with a physical disk. Examining the SP Event Log shows errors for
LUN 16. Data is being gathered from a UNIX host used for storage management. The host does not have
the capability to run the Navisphere Web UI.
To determine the underlying disk structure, which Navisphere Secure CLI subcommand can be used to
determine if LUN 16 is being affected?
A.getdisk
B.getinfo
C.getlun
D.getrg
Answer: C

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the exhibit, what happened between 05:21 A.M. and 06:56 A.M.?
A.CLARiiON back-end port was disconnected
B.CLARiiON front-end port was disconnected
C.MirrorView connection failed
D.SAN Copy connection failed
Answer: C

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button.
A storage administrator is automating a solution using the Navisphere Secure CLI. In the event of
production data corruption, the script needs to recover from the target LUNs.
Which steps should the script perform?
P = Primary
S = Secondary
Snap = Snapshot
A.Unmount P, fracture, roll back Snap, synchronize, promote P, and mount P
B.Unmount P, promote S, fracture, roll back Snap, synchronize, promote P, and mount P
C.Unmount P, roll back Snap, promote S, fracture, synchronize, promote P, and mount P
D.Unmount P, roll back Snap, restore S, and mount P
Answer: B

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
While performing a routine check of a CX3-40 with FLARE R26 the storage administrator receives an
error while trying to clear the logs. What is the cause of the error?
A.Host agent is not running
B.The Privileged User List is empty
C.The user is logged in as a security administrator role
D.The user is logged in with a manager role
Answer: D

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NO.14 A company has implemented Replication Manager to back up their SQL Server. In addition to clone
copies every 6 hours, they have also implemented SQL Server log backups for a more granular RPO.
Last night, a junior DBA corrupted the production database. After using Replication Manager to restore
the database with no recovery, the senior DBA attempts to replay the transaction log backups but the
database returns an error indicating that no database is in a state to replay logs.
What is the cause of this restore failure?
A.Replication Manager only supports transaction log replay on databases restored with full recovery
B.rmsqlrestore.exe was not used to replay the VDI metadata
C.The restored database's SCN is out of sync with the SQL system databases
D.The transaction log backups have a gap in the sequence of transactions
Answer: B

EMC examen   E20-822   E20-822

NO.15 A large financial customer has a time-critical OLTP application running on a dedicated CX3-80. One of
their internal administrators believes they modified something that could have affected the production
LUN. Since then the response time has increased significantly.
What action is the likely cause of the problem?
A.Decreased the high watermark to 75%
B.Enabled auto-assignment
C.Increased queue depth to 128
D.Increased the cache write aside value to 3076
Answer: C

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NO.16 A customer uses Incremental SAN Copy (ISC) as part of a DR solution. They have configured the
Reserved LUN Pool (RLP). They are adapting their environment to support different failure scenarios.
Which combination of failures is most serious?
A.A failure of the ISC update followed by a failure of the production LUN
B.A failure of the ISC update followed by a failure of the remote LUN
C.A failure of the link followed by a failure of the remote RLP
D.A failure of the RLP on the remote CLARiiON followed by a failure of the remote LUN
Answer: A

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NO.17 Click the Exhibit button.
While performing a routine check of a CX3-40 with FLARE R26 the storage administrator receives an
error while trying to clear the logs. What is the cause of the error?
A.Host agent is not running
B.The Privileged User List is empty
C.The user is logged in as a security administrator role
D.The user is logged in with a manager role
Answer: D

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NO.18 You are using Replication Manager to make clones of two production Exchange mailbox database
LUNs. After reviewing the event log for the week, you notice there have been numerous failures but no
alerts have been sent out. Replication Manager was configured to send email alerts in case of an
Exchange job failure.
What is preventing the email alerts from being sent out?
A.MAPI32.DLL is missing on the Replication Manager server
B.Outlook was not installed on the Replication Manager server
C.The Replication Manager console was not configured to relay alerts
D.The SMTP service in IIS was not configured on the Replication Manager server
Answer: D

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NO.19 A customer has configured SnapView for two LUNs on a DR CLARiiON storage system. When the
client attempts to run the Navisphere Secure CLI command to create the snapshot session, it fails.
In the setup process for using SnapView, which step did the customer forget to do?
A.Allocate LUNs to the Reserved LUN Pool
B.Allocate Write Intent Log
C.Enable Incremental Synchronization
D.Test IP link latency
Answer: A

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NO.20 Click the Exhibit button.
A failure has occurred in a DR environment. The error message is displayed in the exhibit. What must be
done to correct the failure?
A.Add more LUNs to the remote CLARiiON RLP. Restart the synchronization.
B.Destroy the mirror. Add a secondary of the correct size.
C.Enable write cache on the remote CLARiiON Write Intent Logs. Restart the synchronization.
D.Increase the write cache size on the remote CLARiiON.
Answer: A

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NO.21 Click the Exhibit button.
What is true of LUN 3?
A.Disk crossings are excessively high
B.Disk utilization is above the best practices threshold
C.The host data is misaligned
D.The number of stripe crossings indicates a large I/O size
Answer: C

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NO.22 A customer created two RAID groups, 0 and 2, with the default settings on their CX3-80 and bound
four LUNs in each group. After starting the application the customer notices all I/O is going through SP B.
What caused the LUN imbalance?
A.CX3-80 has a single SP
B.Default setting bound all LUNs on the same SP
C.Host does not have failover software installed
D.Host is not ALUA-aware
Answer: B

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NO.23 Click the Exhibit button.
While performing a routine check of a CX3-40 with FLARE R26 the storage administrator receives an
error while trying to clear the logs. What is the cause of the error?
A.Host agent is not running
B.The Privileged User List is empty
C.The user is logged in as a security administrator role
D.The user is logged in with a manager role
Answer: D

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NO.24 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer uses multiple server preparation scripts; one for new Exchange servers and one for recovery.
These scripts are used to configure the CLARiiON storage using the Navisphere Secure CLI. The
customer calls and reports that they accidentally ran the new server preparation script instead of the
recovery script they intended to run.
The customer asks for a check to see if their data is still available from CLARiiON storage as they cannot
find their LUNs. The CLARiiON SP event logs show the data in the exhibit. Which method can the
customer use to correct the problem?
A.Rebind base and component LUNs, reform the metaLUN, place the metaLUN in SG for the host, and
recover the data from the backup.
B.Reform the metaLUN from the original base and component LUNs, place the metaLUN in SG for the
host, and recover the data from the backup.
C.Use CLARiiON recovery tools to recover the metaLUN, place the metaLUN in SG for the host, and
recover the data from the backup.
D.Use Navisphere Secure CLI tools to recover base and component LUNs, reform the metaLUN, and
place the metaLUN in SG for the host.
Answer: A

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NO.25 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer wants to create an additional 250 GB LUN on their existing RAID 6 group. How can this be
accomplished?
A.Create the LUN on another RAID 6 group using concatenation
B.Defragment the RAID group and bind the additional LUN
C.Destroy the RAID group and create the new LUNs
D.Expand the RAID group to increase the available space
Answer: A

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NO.26 A customer created two RAID groups, 0 and 2, with the default settings on their CX3-80 and bound
four LUNs in each group. After starting the application the customer notices all I/O is going through SP B.
What caused the LUN imbalance?
A.CX3-80 has a single SP
B.Default setting bound all LUNs on the same SP
C.Host does not have failover software installed
D.Host is not ALUA-aware
Answer: B

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NO.27 A large warehousing company has two CLARiiONs with two LUNs set up and each is mirrored with
MirrorView/A over DWDM. The two sites are less than 1 km away.
The company is currently running an OLTP database on a 300 GB RAID 1/0 4+4 LUN and its logging on a
150 GB RAID 1/0 4+4 LUN. The I/O read/write ratio is 2:1 with a 2 kB average I/O size.
The customer notices that at peak times the latency becomes an issue as their users start to complain
about poor performance. What is your recommendation?
A.Check the fibre for faults
B.Upgrade the CLARiiON model
C.Use Incremental SAN Copy
D.Use MirrorView/S
Answer: D

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NO.28 A customer has been tasked with copying 50 LUNs between two CLARiiONs using SAN Copy. The
customer starts the sessions selecting all defaults. The resulting copies appear to be taking an
unexpectedly long time.
Which settings should be increased to improve performance?
A.Reserved LUN Pool Size, Concurrent sessions
B.Throttle Value, Concurrent sessions
C.Throttle Value, Reserved LUN Pool Size
D.Write cache, Reserved LUN Pool
Answer: B

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NO.29 A customer was running a snapshot session when they noticed a SP failure. The Source LUN was
owned by the failed SP. What will happen to the session and the Reserved LUN Pool (RLP) LUN?
A.Session continues and the RLP LUNs trespass. After repairing the failed SP, the RLP LUN must be
manually trespassed to the original owning SP.
B.Session continues and the RLP LUNs trespass. After repairing the failed SP, the RLP LUN trespasses
back to the original owning SP.
C.Session gets deactivated and the SP frees the allocated LUN. After fixing the failed SP, the session will
activate and the original RLP LUN will be allocated.
D.Session stops and a new RLP LUN will be allocated on the surviving SP upon fixing the failed SP. The
RLP LUN will trespass back to the original SP and the user must manually restart the session.
Answer: B

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NO.30 A customer has recently upgraded their CLARiiON to FLARE R26. What software and configuration
changes must the storage administrator ensure are in place to take advantage of the Asymmetric
Active/Active features of the software?
A.PowerPath 5.0; and change all initiators to use Failover mode 2
B.PowerPath 5.0; disable ArrayCommPath, and change all initiators to use Failover mode 4
C.PowerPath 5.1; and change all initiators to use Failover mode 4
D.PowerPath 5.1; disable Array CommPath, and change all host initiators to use Failover mode 3
Answer: C

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