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Code d'Examen: HP0-J39
Nom d'Examen: HP (Designing and Implementing HP P4000 SAN Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 145 Q&As

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NO.1 What is a major enhancement of SAN/iQ 8.5 over SAN/iQ 8.1?
A. Network RAID 1 and 10
B. Network RAID 5 and 6
C. application-managed snapshots
D. thin provisionedSmartClone
Answer: B

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NO.2 At which level in HP P4000 SAN solutions is RAID configured?
A. storage node
B. volume
C. management group
D. cluster
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statements about remote copies are correct? (Select two.)
A. Remote copiescan not be mounted.
B. Remote copies are always thin provisioned.
C. Remote copies are asynchronous replicas of a volume.
D. Remote copies can be synchronous and asynchronous.
E. Remote copies are asynchronous replicas between different clusters.
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 A design consists of an HP P4000 SAN solution installed across four sites. How many servers running
the central management console are required to manage the solution?
A. 8
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which HBA and iSCSI initiator combination does the iSCSI protocol support? (Select two.)
A. iSCSI HBA with TCP offload engine (TOE)
B. softwareiSCSI initiator with Fibre Channel HBA
C. softwareiSCSI initiator with InfiniBand HBA
D. iSCSI Fibre Channel HBA with TCP TOE software iSCSI initiator
E. softwareiSCSI initiator with NIC
Answer: A,E

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NO.6 Which operating systems does the HP P4000 SAN solution support? (Select three.)
A. Solaris 9
B. OS X Leopard 10.5.5
C. HP OpenVMS 8.3
D. Novell NetWare 6.5
E. SUSE Linux Enterprise Server 10
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.7 Which statements about HP P4000 SAN Network RAID levels are correct? (Select three.)
A. Copies are located on different clusters.
B. Redundant copies of blocks reside on different storage nodes.
C. Performance improves as the number of copies increases.
D. Up to four copies can be created.
E. The Network RAID level is defined per storage node.
F. The number of storage nodes in the cluster can limit the Network RAID level.
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.8 What are potential purposes to utilize snapshots? (Select two.)
A. to restore files without tape or backup software
B. to protect against unintended manual data deletion
C. to protect against disk failures
D. to protect against multiple hardware failures
E. to prevent sensitive data from modification
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 What is the recommended network latency on a multi-site SAN subnet?
A. below 2 ms
B. below 5 ms
C. below 9 ms
D. below 15 ms
Answer: A

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NO.10 What are characteristics of device specific module MPIO (DSM MPIO)? (Select two.)
A. DSM MPIO redirectsiSCSI communication to the least busy storage node.
B. DSM MPIO communication offers better performance than non-DSM MPIO communication.
C. DSM MPIO is available for all operating systems withiSCSI support.
D. DSM MPIO provides the servers with the data mapping of each node.
E. DSM MPIO provides a set of built-in data transport security features.
Answer: B,D

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NO.11 What are the correct steps to create a remote copy on a P4000 G2?
A. Create the remote volume and link it to the primary volume, copy the data.
B. Create the primary volume, create the remote volume and link it to the primary volume, copy the data.
C. Create the remote volume andsnapshot, link the primary volume to the remote snapshot, copy the
data.
D. Create the primary snapshot, create the remote volume and snapshot, link it to the primary
snapshot,copy the data.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which benefit does a virtual IP load balancing (VIPLB) initiator provide?
A. directsiSCSI communication to the least busy storage module
B. supports simultaneousiSCSI communication with multiple storage modules
C. selects the next storage module in the list foriSCSI communication
D. prefers the fastest connection foriSCSI communication
Answer: A

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button. Which network protocol should be enabled when using ProCurve switches in an
iSCSI storage network?
A. Mesh Protocol
B. Simple Loop Prevention Protocol
C. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol
D. Point-to-Point Protocol
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which instance is responsible for access control?
A. cluster
B. server
C. management group
D. volume
Answer: B

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NO.15 How does the HP P4000 SAN solution allow aggregate application performance to be increased when
capacity is added?
A. Capacity and performance are adjusted on a linear scale.
B. Application priority can be adjusted.
C. Capacity and performance are dynamically adjusted to maintain balance.
D. Capacity and performance are balanced through the configuration of expansion modules.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y30

Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing HP Networking Technologies)

Questions et réponses: 137 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-S29

Nom d'Examen: HP (Planning & Designing HP ProLiant Solutions for the Enterprise)

Questions et réponses: 55 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-M38

Nom d'Examen: HP (Managing HP Storage Essentials (SRM) 6.x Software)

Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-J44

Nom d'Examen: HP (Advanced SAN Architecture)

Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-J39

Nom d'Examen: HP (Designing and Implementing HP P4000 SAN Solutions)

Questions et réponses: 145 Q&As

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NO.1 At the CLI of an HP E5406 zl switch, you have assigned ports A1-A4 to VLAN 70 as untagged
members. All other configuration parameters on the E5406 zl are at default settings. The E5406 zl is
connected through port B1 to an HP E8212 zl switch. The E8212 zl has been configured with an IP
interface associated with VLAN 70, and IP routing has been enabled. On the E5406 zl, what must you do
to enable the E8212 zl to act as default gateway for VLAN 70 clients?
A. Define an IP interface in VLAN 70.
B. Configure port B1 to be a member of VLAN 70.
C. Define the VLAN 70 IP address of the E8212 zl as the default gateway.
D. Add a static route to the E8212 to the E5406 zl route table.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which view is indicated by the following prompt on an HP A7500 switch? <A7500>
A. system
B. operator
C. user
D. console
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is a fit Access Point?
A. an AP that can provide WLAN services without a controller
B. an AP that has no intelligence and requires a wireless controller
C. an AP that can be deployed autonomously or with a controller
D. an AP that provides some intelligence under the management of a controller
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which interface is available for managing A-Series switches at factory default settings?
A. Telnet
B. menu
C. console
D. web
Answer: C

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NO.5 You have uploaded an application file named "A12500.bin" to an HP A12500 switch.
Which command ensures this file is used during the next boot cycle?
A. boot-file cf:/A12500.bin main
B. load appfile cf:/A12500.bin main
C. boot-loader file cf:/A12500.bin main
D. set boot file cf:/A12500.bin main
Answer: C

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NO.6 You must configure SSH on an HP A7500 switch. Which item must be generated on the switch?
A. passphrase
B. shared secret
C. self-signed certificate
D. encryption keys
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which type of port can handle more than one untagged VLAN on an HP A-Series switch?
A. trunk
B. access
C. aggregated
D. hybrid
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the effect of the following command entered at the CLI of an HP E3500 yl switch?
E3500(vlan-44)#interface 23
A. The CLI displays the status of port 23.
B. Port 23 becomes a member of VLAN 44.
C. Port 23 is enabled.
D. The CLI enters the configuration context for port 23.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
Which statement accurately describes the state of Gigabit Ethernet 3/0/12 in the HP A-Series switch
configuration shown in the exhibit?
A. The interface will be a tagged member of VLAN 12.
B. The interface will be an untagged member of VLAN 1.
C. The interface will be an untagged member of VLAN 12.
D. The interface will drop all incoming packets for VLAN 12.
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is the effect of the following command entered at the CLI of an HP E5400 zl Series switch at
factory default settings.?
Switch# exit
A. The user is logged out of the console.
B. The privilege level moves from manager to operator.
C. Unsaved configuration changes are deleted.
D. The user exits from configuration mode.
Answer: B

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NO.11 You must configure a port on an A5800 switch to support protocol-based VLANs and port-based
VLANs. Which port type supports this requirement?
A. hybrid
B. access
C. aggregated
D. trunk
E. tagged
Answer: A

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NO.12 You must define a hostname on an HP E5400 zl Series switch. Which configuration context must you
enter to perform this task?
A. manager
B. system
C. administrator
D. global configuration
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which HP E-Series switch features redundant management and fabric modules?
A. E2910 al
B. E8212 zl
C. E5412 zl
D. E4208 vl
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which A-Series switch is designed for the large data center and the enterprise core?
A. A5820
B. A7500
C. A9500
D. A12500
Answer: D

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NO.15 You have entered the following command at the CLI of an HP E5400 zl Series switch. Switch(vlan-1)# ip
address 192.168.1.225/24
The switch's other VLAN and IP parameters are at factory defaults. While testing this configuration, you
find that the switch cannot ping a server located at 192.168.2.22. You have confirmed the server is up and
available. This server is located in a data center not directly connected to your switch.
What must you configure on the switch to enable connectivity between these two devices?
A. Add a default gateway.
B. Modify the IP address to 192.168.1.225/26.
C. Enable IP routing.
D. Add the server to allowed hosts list.
Answer: A

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NO.16 You must reset the startup configuration of an HP A-Series switch to factory defaults. Which CLI view
will enable you to complete this task?
A. manager view
B. global configuration view
C. system view
D. user view
Answer: D

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NO.17 You have initiated a console session on an HP A-Series switch at default settings. What is your
privilege level?
A. Visit (0)
B. Monitor (1)
C. System (2)
D. Manage (3)
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which HP E-Series switch models are fixed-port switches? (Select two.)
A. E8212 zl
B. E4204 vl
C. E6600-24G
D. E5406 zl
E. E3500-48G yl
Answer: CE

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NO.19 What is the effect of the following command entered at the CLI of an HP E5400 zl Series switch?
Switch(vlan-100)# end
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A. The CLI displays the Operator prompt.
B. The CLI displays the Manager prompt.
C. VLAN 100 is deleted from the switch.
D. The CLI displays the global configuration prompt.
Answer: D

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NO.20 You must configure VLANs and ports on an HP A7500 switch at default settings. What is the effect of
the following commands?
[SW-Gigabit-Ethernet1/0/1]port link-type trunk [SW-Gigabit-Ethernet1/0/1]port trunk permit vlan 100 101
A. The switch will forward traffic for VLANs 100 and 101 with 802.1Q tags. Traffic for VLAN 1 will be
untagged. Traffic for all other VLANs will be discarded.
B. The switch will add port 1/0/1 to a Link Aggregation Group (LAG) that is a tagged member of VLANs
100 and 101.
C. The switch will forward traffic for VLANs 100 and 101, but will discard traffic for all other VLANs.
D. The switch will forward VLAN 101 traffic with 802.1Q tags. VLAN 100 traffic will be untagged.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J39

Nom d'Examen: HP (Designing and Implementing HP P4000 SAN Solutions)

Questions et réponses: 145 Q&As

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NO.1 Which operating systems does the HP P4000 SAN solution support? (Select three.)
A. Solaris 9
B. OS X Leopard 10.5.5
C. HP OpenVMS 8.3
D. Novell NetWare 6.5
E. SUSE Linux Enterprise Server 10
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.2 Which statements about HP P4000 SAN Network RAID levels are correct? (Select three.)
A. Copies are located on different clusters.
B. Redundant copies of blocks reside on different storage nodes.
C. Performance improves as the number of copies increases.
D. Up to four copies can be created.
E. The Network RAID level is defined per storage node.
F. The number of storage nodes in the cluster can limit the Network RAID level.
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.3 What are the correct steps to create a remote copy on a P4000 G2?
A. Create the remote volume and link it to the primary volume, copy the data.
B. Create the primary volume, create the remote volume and link it to the primary volume, copy the data.
C. Create the remote volume andsnapshot, link the primary volume to the remote snapshot, copy the
data.
D. Create the primary snapshot, create the remote volume and snapshot, link it to the primary
snapshot,copy the data.
Answer: D

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NO.4 How does the HP P4000 SAN solution allow aggregate application performance to be increased when
capacity is added?
A. Capacity and performance are adjusted on a linear scale.
B. Application priority can be adjusted.
C. Capacity and performance are dynamically adjusted to maintain balance.
D. Capacity and performance are balanced through the configuration of expansion modules.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A design consists of an HP P4000 SAN solution installed across four sites. How many servers running
the central management console are required to manage the solution?
A. 8
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: D

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NO.6 At which level in HP P4000 SAN solutions is RAID configured?
A. storage node
B. volume
C. management group
D. cluster
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is a major enhancement of SAN/iQ 8.5 over SAN/iQ 8.1?
A. Network RAID 1 and 10
B. Network RAID 5 and 6
C. application-managed snapshots
D. thin provisionedSmartClone
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which instance is responsible for access control?
A. cluster
B. server
C. management group
D. volume
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which benefit does a virtual IP load balancing (VIPLB) initiator provide?
A. directsiSCSI communication to the least busy storage module
B. supports simultaneousiSCSI communication with multiple storage modules
C. selects the next storage module in the list foriSCSI communication
D. prefers the fastest connection foriSCSI communication
Answer: A

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NO.10 What are characteristics of device specific module MPIO (DSM MPIO)? (Select two.)
A. DSM MPIO redirectsiSCSI communication to the least busy storage node.
B. DSM MPIO communication offers better performance than non-DSM MPIO communication.
C. DSM MPIO is available for all operating systems withiSCSI support.
D. DSM MPIO provides the servers with the data mapping of each node.
E. DSM MPIO provides a set of built-in data transport security features.
Answer: B,D

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NO.11 Which statements about remote copies are correct? (Select two.)
A. Remote copiescan not be mounted.
B. Remote copies are always thin provisioned.
C. Remote copies are asynchronous replicas of a volume.
D. Remote copies can be synchronous and asynchronous.
E. Remote copies are asynchronous replicas between different clusters.
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button. Which network protocol should be enabled when using ProCurve switches in an
iSCSI storage network?
A. Mesh Protocol
B. Simple Loop Prevention Protocol
C. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol
D. Point-to-Point Protocol
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which HBA and iSCSI initiator combination does the iSCSI protocol support? (Select two.)
A. iSCSI HBA with TCP offload engine (TOE)
B. softwareiSCSI initiator with Fibre Channel HBA
C. softwareiSCSI initiator with InfiniBand HBA
D. iSCSI Fibre Channel HBA with TCP TOE software iSCSI initiator
E. softwareiSCSI initiator with NIC
Answer: A,E

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NO.14 What is the recommended network latency on a multi-site SAN subnet?
A. below 2 ms
B. below 5 ms
C. below 9 ms
D. below 15 ms
Answer: A

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NO.15 What are potential purposes to utilize snapshots? (Select two.)
A. to restore files without tape or backup software
B. to protect against unintended manual data deletion
C. to protect against disk failures
D. to protect against multiple hardware failures
E. to prevent sensitive data from modification
Answer: A,B

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